H101 – Health, Fitness, and Wellness: Cardiovascular Risk, Muscular Fitness, Nutrition, and Stress

Question 1 
Which structure filters lymph and contains white blood cells that help fight infection?

A. Kidney
B. Lymph node
C. Gallbladder
D. Bladder

Explanation: Lymph nodes filter lymph fluid and house lymphocytes and other immune cells that detect and destroy pathogens. The kidney, gallbladder, and bladder are not part of the lymphatic defense system.

Question 2 
Several students in a residence hall are ill with a stomach virus. A student wants to avoid becoming infected.
Which strategy will help reduce the possibility of transmission?

A. Drink herbal tea
B. Take a daily multivitamin
C. Wash hands with soap and water after using the restroom and before eating
D. Sleep with a window open

Explanation: Stomach viruses spread when hands contaminated with the virus touch the mouth or food. Thorough handwashing with soap and water removes the virus and is the most reliable way to reduce transmission.

Question 3 
A 65-year-old suddenly develops drooping on one side of the face, slurred speech, and weakness in one arm.
Which condition causes these symptoms?

A. Stroke
B. Migraine
C. Panic attack
D. Osteoporosis

Explanation: Facial drooping, slurred speech, and one-sided arm weakness are the classic warning signs of a stroke, which occurs when blood flow to part of the brain is blocked or a vessel bursts. It requires emergency treatment.

Question 4

A student learns that a roommate has been diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. Which two methods should the student use to prevent contracting the disease?

Choose 2 answers.

A. Avoid swimming in public pools.
B. Avoid sharing drinks and eating utensils.
C. Avoid kissing the roommate.
D. Avoid exercising outdoors.

Explanation: Mononucleosis is spread mainly through saliva, which is why it is sometimes called the “kissing disease.” Avoiding shared drinks and utensils and avoiding kissing reduce exposure to infected saliva.

Question 5 
Why is muscular endurance important for maintaining personal physical fitness?

A. It determines the maximum weight that can be lifted one time
B. It increases the range of motion of the joints
C. It reduces the body’s need for oxygen during exercise
D. It allows muscles to perform repeated contractions without fatiguing quickly

Explanation: Muscular endurance is the ability of a muscle or muscle group to keep working over time. It supports everyday tasks such as carrying groceries or climbing stairs without early fatigue.

Question 6 
Which of the following are modifiable risk factors for cardiovascular disease?
(Choose 3 answers)

A. Smoking
B. Family history
C. High blood pressure
D. Age
E. Physical inactivity

Explanation: Smoking, high blood pressure, and physical inactivity can be changed through lifestyle choices or treatment. Family history and age cannot be changed.

Question 7 
A person suddenly falls to the floor and begins having a generalized seizure. What is the first step to take?

A. Move nearby hard objects away and cushion the person’s head
B. Place a spoon in the person’s mouth
C. Hold the person down firmly
D. Pour cold water on the person’s face

Explanation: The priority is to protect the person from injury by clearing the area and cushioning the head. Nothing should be placed in the mouth, and the person should not be restrained.

Question 8 
What are ways to properly care for eyes?
(Choose 3 answers)

A. Wearing sunglasses that block UV rays
B. Rubbing the eyes when they are irritated
C. Following the 20-20-20 rule during screen use
D. Sharing eye makeup with friends
E. Getting regular eye exams

Explanation: UV-blocking sunglasses protect the eyes from sun damage, the 20-20-20 rule (every 20 minutes, look at something 20 feet away for 20 seconds) reduces digital eye strain, and regular exams detect problems early. Rubbing irritated eyes and sharing eye makeup can cause injury or infection.

Question 9 
Which sleep stage is characterized by sleep spindles and a drop in body temperature and heart rate as the body prepares for deep sleep?

A. Stage 2
B. Stage 1
C. Stage 3
D. REM

Explanation: Stage 2 is a light sleep stage marked by brief bursts of brain activity called sleep spindles, along with a lowering of body temperature and heart rate.

Question 10 
Which description of Stage 3 sleep is true?

A. It is the lightest stage of sleep
B. It is the stage when most vivid dreams occur
C. It is characterized by rapid eye movements
D. It is deep sleep during which tissue repair and growth hormone release occur

Explanation: Stage 3 is deep, slow-wave sleep. The body repairs tissue, strengthens the immune system, and releases growth hormone during this stage. Vivid dreams and rapid eye movements occur in REM sleep.

Question 11 
How many calories per gram do carbohydrates provide?

A. 4
B. 2
C. 7
D. 9

Explanation: Carbohydrates and protein each supply about 4 calories per gram. Fat supplies about 9 calories per gram, and alcohol supplies about 7.

Question 12 
Which type of dietary fat raises LDL cholesterol, lowers HDL cholesterol, and should be limited as much as possible?

A. Monounsaturated
B. Omega-3
C. Trans
D. Polyunsaturated

Explanation: Trans fats, found in many fried and commercially baked foods, raise harmful LDL cholesterol and lower protective HDL cholesterol, which increases the risk of heart disease.

Question 13

Beef Lasagna, Frozen

Why would this food be a poor choice for an individual with cardiovascular disease?

A. Inadequate protein per serving
B. Too much dietary fiber
C. Excessive saturated fat and sodium
D. The trans fat content exceeds the saturated fat content

Explanation: One serving supplies 11 g of saturated fat (55% of the daily value) and 780 mg of sodium (33% of the daily value). Both raise cardiovascular risk, so this lasagna is a poor choice for someone with cardiovascular disease.

Question 14 
Which lunch option is appropriate for an individual who has been advised to limit sodium intake?

A. Deli ham sandwich with pickles
B. Grilled chicken salad with olive oil and lemon dressing
C. Canned chicken noodle soup with saltine crackers
D. Instant ramen with the seasoning packet

Explanation: Fresh grilled chicken and salad dressed with olive oil and lemon are naturally low in sodium. Deli meats, pickles, canned soup, crackers, and instant noodle seasoning packets are all very high in sodium.

Question 15 
Which vitamin is recommended for women who may become pregnant in order to reduce the risk of neural tube defects?

A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin C
D. Folic acid

Explanation: Folic acid (folate) supports early development of the baby’s brain and spinal cord, and adequate intake before and during early pregnancy lowers the risk of neural tube defects.

Question 16 
What is true of the Mediterranean diet?

A. It emphasizes olive oil, vegetables, fish, and whole grains
B. It recommends red meat at most meals
C. It eliminates all carbohydrates
D. It eliminates all dietary fat

Explanation: The Mediterranean diet centers on plant foods, olive oil, and fish, with limited red meat and sweets. It includes healthy fats and carbohydrates rather than eliminating them.

Question 17 
Presenting a project to classmates and adjusting the explanation based on their questions is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Communication and leadership
B. Self-management
C. Self-awareness
D. Executive function

Explanation: Explaining ideas clearly and adapting to an audience’s responses are central skills of communication and leadership.

Question 18 
Which activity would be recommended to an individual with knee osteoarthritis who wants to do aerobic exercise?

A. Basketball
B. Jumping rope
C. Stationary cycling
D. Sprinting up stairs

Explanation: Stationary cycling provides an effective aerobic workout while placing little impact stress on the knee joints. Basketball, jumping rope, and stair sprints involve repetitive high impact.

Question 19

Sweet Tea, Bottled

Why is the above a poor food choice for an individual trying to control weight through high nutrient density and low calorie intake?

A. The protein content offsets the high sugar content.
B. The amount of saturated fat is greater than the amount of unsaturated fat.
C. The calories from fat and carbohydrates are nearly equal.
D. The container holds more than one serving, so drinking the whole bottle supplies far more calories and sugar than listed.

Explanation: The label lists 90 calories and 22 g of sugar per 8 fl oz serving, but the 20 fl oz bottle contains 2.5 servings. Drinking the whole bottle would supply about 225 calories and 55 g of sugar with no fiber, protein, or other nutrients.

Question 20 
What is the safe minimum internal temperature for cooked poultry?

A. 125°F (52°C)
B. 145°F (63°C)
C. 165°F (74°C)
D. 100°F (38°C)

Explanation: Poultry must reach an internal temperature of 165°F (74°C), measured with a food thermometer, to kill harmful bacteria such as Salmonella and Campylobacter.

Question 21 
Which is the safest way to store raw meat in a refrigerator?

A. On the top shelf, uncovered
B. Loosely wrapped next to fresh produce
C. In the door compartment
D. In a sealed container on the bottom shelf

Explanation: Storing raw meat in a sealed container on the bottom shelf keeps its juices from dripping onto ready-to-eat foods, and the bottom shelf is the coldest, most stable area. The door is the warmest part of the refrigerator.

Question 22 
Which of the following are common signs of high stress?
(Choose 5 answers)

A. Frequent headaches
B. Muscle tension or aches
C. Sudden improvement in vision
D. Irritability
E. Difficulty sleeping
F. Improved memory
G. Changes in appetite

Explanation: Stress commonly causes headaches, muscle tension, irritability, sleep problems, and changes in appetite. Better vision and improved memory are not typical effects of stress.

Question 23 
What is associated with persistent difficulty paying attention, excessive activity, and acting without thinking?

A. Panic disorder
B. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
C. Post-traumatic stress disorder
D. Bipolar disorder

Explanation: Inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity are the defining features of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).

Question 24 
Which of the following is a type of barrier contraception?

A. The vaginal ring
B. The diaphragm
C. The patch
D. The hormonal IUD

Explanation: The diaphragm is a barrier method: a dome-shaped device placed over the cervix that blocks sperm from entering the uterus. The ring, patch, and hormonal IUD release hormones.

Question 25 
Which of the following is a type of hormonal contraception?

A. The copper IUD
B. The female condom
C. The vaginal ring
D. Spermicide

Explanation: The vaginal ring releases estrogen and progestin to prevent ovulation. The copper IUD works without hormones, and the female condom and spermicide are barrier or chemical methods.

Question 26 
In the Kübler-Ross model, which emotional response involves making deals, such as promising to change one’s habits if given more time to live?

A. Denial
B. Anger
C. Acceptance
D. Bargaining

Explanation: Bargaining is the stage in which a person facing a terminal illness tries to negotiate for more time or a different outcome, often by promising to change behavior.

Question 27 
Which of the following have a positive impact on social health?
(Choose 3 answers)

A. Active listening
B. Isolating from peers
C. Volunteering in the community
D. Gossiping about others
E. Mutual respect in relationships

Explanation: Listening carefully, contributing to the community, and maintaining mutual respect build trust and connection. Isolation and gossip damage relationships.

Question 28 
Which category of drugs do cocaine, methamphetamine, and amphetamines belong?

A. Stimulants
B. Depressants
C. Inhalants
D. Hallucinogens

Explanation: Cocaine, methamphetamine, and amphetamines speed up central nervous system activity, raising heart rate, alertness, and energy, so they are classified as stimulants.

Question 29 
Which of the following are common health consequences of long-term tobacco use?
(Choose 5 answers)

A. Lung cancer
B. Improved lung capacity
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Heart disease
E. Lower blood pressure
F. Gum disease
G. Reduced sense of taste and smell

Explanation: Long-term tobacco use damages the lungs, heart, gums, and senses of taste and smell. It reduces lung capacity and raises, rather than lowers, blood pressure.

Question 30 
An individual imagines a peaceful beach, picturing the sound of waves and the warmth of the sun, to calm down before a stressful event.
Which method is the individual using to reduce stress?

A. Progressive relaxation
B. Guided imagery
C. Biofeedback
D. Stress inoculation

Explanation: Guided imagery uses vivid mental pictures of calming scenes to reduce tension and anxiety.

Question 31 
After a week of tight deadlines, a student feels anxious and irritable and cannot concentrate.
Which type of response to stress is described?

A. Psychological
B. Physiological
C. Social
D. Spiritual

Explanation: Anxiety, irritability, and difficulty concentrating are emotional and cognitive reactions, which makes this a psychological response to stress.

Question 32 
Which is a benefit of strong SEL skills?

A. Reduced need for relationships
B. Elimination of all negative emotions
C. Greater ability to manage stress and build healthy relationships
D. Guaranteed career success

Explanation: Social-emotional skills help people handle stress, communicate effectively, and form healthy relationships. They do not eliminate negative emotions or guarantee any particular outcome.

Question 33 
Which SEL skill is characterized by regulating emotions and behaviors, setting goals, and managing time?

A. Self-management
B. Social awareness
C. Self-awareness
D. Communication and leadership

Explanation: Self-management is the ability to control emotions and behavior, set goals, and organize time and effort to reach them.

Question 34 
Which scenario is an example of self-awareness?

A. Making a study schedule for the week
B. Volunteering to lead a group discussion
C. Learning about a coworker’s cultural traditions
D. Identifying that one learns best through visual diagrams

Explanation: Recognizing one’s own strengths, preferences, and learning style is self-awareness. Scheduling is self-management, leading is communication and leadership, and learning about a coworker’s traditions is social awareness.

Question 35 
Acknowledging that a lack of sleep is affecting one’s mood at work is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Social awareness
B. Self-awareness
C. Executive function
D. Communication and leadership

Explanation: Noticing how one’s physical state influences emotions and behavior is a core part of self-awareness.

Question 36 
Which scenario is an example of an effective self-management skill?

A. Noticing a coworker’s tone change during a meeting
B. Breaking a large research paper into smaller tasks with due dates
C. Asking a peer how a project is going
D. Listing one’s personal strengths and weaknesses

Explanation: Breaking a large goal into manageable steps with deadlines shows planning, discipline, and goal-setting, all of which are components of self-management.

Question 37 
Staying calm and composed when a customer becomes rude is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Social awareness
B. Communication and leadership
C. Self-awareness
D. Self-management

Explanation: Regulating one’s emotional reactions under pressure is a key component of self-management.

Question 38 
Learning to recognize signs of stress in coworkers, such as changes in tone or withdrawal, is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Executive function
B. Self-awareness
C. Social awareness
D. Self-management

Explanation: Social awareness involves reading the emotional cues and behavior of others and understanding how they feel.

Question 39 
Listening carefully to a classmate’s viewpoint on a controversial topic, without interrupting, in order to understand the classmate’s perspective is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Executive function
B. Self-awareness
C. Social awareness
D. Self-management

Explanation: Trying to understand another person’s perspective with empathy and respect is a defining feature of social awareness.

Question 40 
Which scenario is an example of lifelong executive function?

A. Attending an annual holiday party
B. Analyzing why a project failed and building a better plan for next time
C. Repeating the same approach after each failure
D. Skipping a review after completing a task

Explanation: Reflecting on outcomes and using what was learned to improve future plans is an ongoing exercise of critical thinking and decision-making, the core of executive function.

Question 41 
Evaluating several possible solutions to a scheduling conflict and selecting one based on its likely outcomes is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Self-awareness
B. Executive function
C. Social awareness
D. Self-management

Explanation: Comparing options and predicting their consequences before choosing is critical thinking and responsible decision-making, which are hallmarks of executive function.

Question 42 
This assessment allowed me to demonstrate my competence in this subject matter.

A. Strongly Disagree
B. Disagree
C. Neutral
D. Agree
E. Strongly Agree
F. N/A or I don’t know

Question 43 
This assessment reflected the types of things that are important for my desired career.

A. Strongly Disagree
B. Disagree
C. Neutral
D. Agree
E. Strongly Agree
F. N/A or I don’t know

Explanation: The content of the assessment aligned with the knowledge and skills needed for my intended career.