H101 – Health, Fitness, and Wellness: Immune Health, Cardiovascular Fitness, Nutrition, and Anxiety Management

Question 1 
Which type of white blood cell produces antibodies?

A. Red blood cell
B. B lymphocyte
C. Platelet
D. Neutrophil

Explanation: B lymphocytes (B cells) mature into plasma cells that manufacture antibodies matched to specific antigens. Red blood cells carry oxygen, platelets help blood clot, and neutrophils engulf pathogens but do not produce antibodies.

Question 2 
Several coworkers in an office have influenza. An employee wants to reduce the risk of becoming infected.
Which strategy will help reduce the possibility of infection?

A. Take antibiotics daily
B. Avoid eating fruit
C. Sleep with a window open
D. Get an annual influenza vaccination

Explanation: An annual flu vaccine prepares the immune system to recognize circulating influenza strains and lowers the chance of infection or severe illness. Antibiotics are ineffective against viruses, and the other options have no proven protective effect.

Question 3 
A 55-year-old male experiences pressure and tightness in the chest that spreads to the left arm and jaw. The individual is sweating, nauseated, and short of breath.
Which condition causes these symptoms?

A. Asthma
B. Food poisoning
C. Heart attack
D. Arthritis

Explanation: Chest pressure that radiates to the arm or jaw, together with sweating, nausea, and shortness of breath, is the classic presentation of a heart attack. This is a medical emergency that requires immediate care.

Question 4

A student learns that several people in the residence hall have been diagnosed with norovirus, a highly contagious stomach illness. Which two methods should the student use to prevent contracting the illness?

Choose 2 answers.

A. Wash hands with soap and water before eating.
B. Avoid spending time outdoors.
C. Take a daily antibiotic.
D. Clean shared bathroom surfaces with a bleach-based disinfectant.

Explanation: Norovirus spreads through contaminated hands, food, and surfaces. Handwashing with soap and water and disinfecting shared surfaces with a bleach-based cleaner are the most effective ways to interrupt transmission. Antibiotics do not work against viruses, and staying indoors does not prevent spread.

Question 5 
Why is cardiorespiratory endurance important for maintaining personal physical fitness?

A. Improves the ability of the heart and lungs to supply oxygen during sustained activity
B. Increases the flexibility of the joints
C. Increases the size of individual muscle fibers
D. Decreases the need for rest and recovery

Explanation: Cardiorespiratory endurance describes how efficiently the heart, lungs, and blood vessels deliver oxygen to working muscles during prolonged activity. Building it supports heart health and makes everyday activity less tiring.

Question 6 
Which of the following are health benefits of regular aerobic exercise?
(Choose 3 answers)

A. Lower resting heart rate
B. Increased risk of type 2 diabetes
C. Improved cholesterol levels
D. Reduced bone density
E. Improved mood and reduced stress

Explanation: Regular aerobic exercise strengthens the heart so it beats more slowly at rest, improves blood lipid levels, and releases mood-lifting chemicals that help reduce stress. It lowers, not raises, the risk of type 2 diabetes and does not reduce bone density.

Question 7 
A coworker has cut a leg on a piece of equipment, and blood is soaking through the person’s pants. What is the first step in controlling the bleeding?

A. Wash the wound thoroughly
B. Give the coworker water to drink
C. Apply a heating pad to the area
D. Apply direct pressure to the wound with a clean cloth

Explanation: Direct pressure with a clean cloth or gauze is the first and most effective step for controlling external bleeding. Cleaning the wound can wait until the bleeding is under control, and heat would increase blood flow.

Question 8 
What are ways to properly care for skin?
(Choose 3 answers)

A. Using broad-spectrum sunscreen daily
B. Using tanning beds to build a base tan
C. Moisturizing regularly
D. Drinking enough water
E. Picking at blemishes

Explanation: Daily sunscreen reduces UV damage and skin cancer risk, moisturizing protects the skin barrier, and adequate hydration supports healthy skin. Tanning beds increase skin cancer risk, and picking at blemishes can cause infection and scarring.

Question 9 
Which sleep stage is characterized by slow delta brain waves and is the most difficult stage from which to wake a person?

A. Stage 3
B. Stage 1
C. Stage 2
D. REM

Explanation: Stage 3 is deep, slow-wave sleep dominated by delta waves. It is the most restorative stage, and people awakened from it often feel groggy and disoriented.

Question 10 
Which description of REM sleep is true?

A. It is the first stage entered after falling asleep
B. It occurs in longer periods later in the night
C. It is characterized by very slow delta waves
D. It is the stage when sleepwalking most often occurs

Explanation: REM periods become longer as the night progresses, and most vivid dreaming occurs then. Stage 1 is the first stage after falling asleep, and delta waves and sleepwalking are associated with deep, non-REM sleep.

Question 11 
Which nutrient provides the most energy per gram?

A. Protein
B. Carbohydrate
C. Fat
D. Vitamins

Explanation: Fat provides about 9 calories per gram, more than double the roughly 4 calories per gram supplied by protein or carbohydrate. Vitamins do not provide energy.

Question 12 
Which type of dietary fat, found in olive oil, avocados, and many nuts, can help lower LDL cholesterol when it replaces saturated fat?

A. Trans
B. Saturated
C. Hydrogenated
D. Monounsaturated

Explanation: Monounsaturated fats are considered heart-healthy because they help lower LDL (“bad”) cholesterol when used in place of saturated fat. Trans, saturated, and hydrogenated fats raise the risk of cardiovascular disease.

Question 13

Chicken Noodle Soup, Canned

Why would this food be a poor choice for an individual who has been advised to limit sodium because of high blood pressure?

A. Excessive saturated fat
B. Too much protein
C. Excessive sodium per serving
D. Too many total calories

Explanation: The label shows 890 mg of sodium in one cup, or 37% of the daily value, and the container holds 2.5 servings, so eating the whole can would supply about 2,200 mg, close to an entire day’s recommended limit. High sodium raises blood pressure, so this soup is a poor choice for someone who has been advised to limit sodium.

Question 14 
Which lunch option is appropriate for an individual who has been advised to increase dietary fiber intake?

A. Turkey sandwich on white bread with a soda
B. Cheese pizza with a side of fries
C. Chicken salad on a plain croissant
D. Black bean and brown rice bowl with vegetables

Explanation: Beans, brown rice, and vegetables are all rich in dietary fiber. The other options rely on refined grains and animal products that contain little or no fiber.

Question 15 
Which mineral supplement is most commonly recommended for an individual diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia?

A. Calcium
B. Potassium
C. Iron
D. Zinc

Explanation: Iron-deficiency anemia occurs when the body lacks enough iron to make hemoglobin, so iron supplementation, usually under a health professional’s guidance, is the standard treatment.

Question 16 
What is true of pescatarian and lacto-ovo vegetarian diets?

A. Lacto-ovo vegetarians eat fish
B. Pescatarians eat fish and seafood but not meat or poultry
C. Pescatarians avoid all animal products
D. Lacto-ovo vegetarians avoid dairy and eggs

Explanation: A pescatarian diet is plant-based but includes fish and seafood. Lacto-ovo vegetarians eat dairy (“lacto”) and eggs (“ovo”) but no meat, poultry, or fish.

Question 17 
Volunteering to lead a team meeting and clearly assigning tasks to group members is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Self-awareness
B. Social awareness
C. Communication and leadership
D. Self-management

Explanation: Guiding a group and clearly communicating expectations are core components of communication and leadership within social-emotional learning.

Question 18 
Which activity is classified as vigorous-intensity aerobic activity?

A. Running at a steady pace
B. Slow walking
C. Light stretching
D. Washing dishes

Explanation: Running raises the heart rate and breathing rate substantially, which defines vigorous-intensity activity. Slow walking, light stretching, and household chores are light-intensity activities.

Question 19

Frosted Donut

Why is the above a poor food choice for an individual trying to control weight through high nutrient density and low calorie intake?

A. Cholesterol content exceeds the recommended daily value.
B. Most calories come from fat and sugar, with little fiber, protein, or other nutrients.
C. The serving size is much smaller than one donut.
D. The protein content offsets the fat content.

Explanation: Nearly half of the 320 calories come from fat, and the donut adds 20 g of sugar with only 1 g of fiber and 3 g of protein. That combination is calorie-dense but nutrient-poor, which works against weight control based on high nutrient density and low calorie intake.

Question 20 
Which is a safe method for thawing frozen meat?

A. On the kitchen counter overnight
B. In a warm, sunny window
C. In hot tap water for several hours
D. In the refrigerator

Explanation: Thawing in the refrigerator keeps the meat at a safe, cold temperature the whole time. Thawing at room temperature or in warm water lets the surface enter the temperature danger zone, where bacteria multiply rapidly.

Question 21 
Which action helps prevent cross-contamination after handling raw poultry?

A. Rinse the raw chicken in the sink before cooking
B. Wash hands and surfaces with hot, soapy water
C. Wipe the counter with a dry paper towel
D. Store the raw chicken above ready-to-eat foods

Explanation: Washing hands and any surfaces the raw poultry touched with hot, soapy water removes bacteria before they can spread to other foods. Rinsing raw chicken splashes bacteria around the kitchen, and storing raw meat above other foods lets juices drip onto them.

Question 22 
Which of the following are common warning signs of an anxiety disorder?
(Choose 5 answers)

A. Persistent, excessive worry
B. Restlessness or feeling on edge
C. Muscle tension
D. Sudden increase in appetite for sweets
E. Difficulty falling asleep because of racing thoughts
F. Frequent morning joint stiffness
G. Irritability

Explanation: Excessive worry, restlessness, muscle tension, sleep difficulty, and irritability are hallmark signs of anxiety. Appetite changes toward sweets and morning joint stiffness are not characteristic indicators of an anxiety disorder.

Question 23 
What is associated with sudden episodes of intense fear that cause a pounding heart, sweating, and shortness of breath without an obvious trigger?

A. Bipolar disorder
B. Panic disorder
C. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
D. Schizophrenia

Explanation: Panic disorder involves recurrent, unexpected panic attacks: abrupt surges of intense fear with physical symptoms such as a racing heart and breathlessness.

Question 24 
Which of the following is a type of barrier contraception?

A. The male condom
B. The pill
C. The implant
D. The hormonal injection

Explanation: Barrier methods physically prevent sperm from reaching the egg. The male condom is a barrier method, whereas the pill, implant, and injection are hormonal methods.

Question 25 
Which of the following is a type of hormonal contraception?

A. The diaphragm
B. The cervical cap
C. The contraceptive patch
D. The male condom

Explanation: The contraceptive patch releases hormones through the skin that prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. The diaphragm, cervical cap, and condom are barrier methods that do not use hormones.

Question 26 
According to the Kübler-Ross model, which is typically the first emotional response to a terminal diagnosis?

A. Denial
B. Bargaining
C. Anger
D. Acceptance

Explanation: Denial is the first stage in the Kübler-Ross model. It acts as a buffer against the shock of the diagnosis, and people often move on to anger, bargaining, depression, and eventually acceptance.

Question 27 
Which of the following are strategies for building resilience?
(Choose 3 answers)

A. Maintaining supportive relationships
B. Avoiding all stressful situations
C. Practicing problem-solving skills
D. Suppressing emotions
E. Staying physically active

Explanation: Strong relationships, problem-solving skills, and regular physical activity help people cope with and recover from adversity. Avoiding stress altogether or suppressing emotions is not effective or sustainable.

Question 28 
Which category of drugs do alcohol, benzodiazepines, and barbiturates belong?

A. Depressants
B. Stimulants
C. Hallucinogens
D. Inhalants

Explanation: Alcohol, benzodiazepines, and barbiturates slow central nervous system activity, so they are classified as depressants.

Question 29 
Which of the following are common signs of a developing addiction?
(Choose 5 answers)

A. Needing more of a substance to get the same effect
B. Steady improvement in grades
C. Withdrawal symptoms when stopping use
D. Continued use despite negative consequences
E. Increased interest in team activities
F. Strong cravings
G. Losing interest in previously enjoyed hobbies

Explanation: Tolerance, withdrawal, continued use despite harm, cravings, and loss of interest in former activities are recognized indicators of addiction. Improved grades and greater involvement in team activities point away from substance problems.

Question 30 
Before an exam, a student sits quietly and slowly inhales through the nose, holds the breath briefly, and exhales through the mouth, repeating the pattern to calm down.
Which method is the student using to reduce stress?

A. Progressive relaxation
B. Guided imagery
C. Deep breathing
D. Stress inoculation

Explanation: Slow, controlled breathing activates the body’s relaxation response and lowers heart rate and tension. This technique is deep breathing.

Question 31 
Before giving a class presentation, a student’s heart races, palms sweat, and breathing quickens.
Which type of response to stress is described?

A. Spiritual
B. Physiological
C. Social
D. Psychological

Explanation: A racing heart, sweating, and rapid breathing are bodily reactions caused by the release of stress hormones, which makes this a physiological response to stress.

Question 32 
Which is a characteristic of SEL skills?

A. They are fixed at birth
B. They apply only in school settings
C. They cannot influence academic success
D. They can be practiced and strengthened over time

Explanation: Social-emotional learning skills can be developed at any age through practice and reflection, and they benefit performance at school, at work, and in relationships.

Question 33 
Which SEL skill is characterized by recognizing one’s own emotions, strengths, and limitations?

A. Self-awareness
B. Executive function
C. Social awareness
D. Communication and leadership

Explanation: Self-awareness is the ability to identify and understand one’s own emotions, values, strengths, and limitations and how they influence behavior.

Question 34 
Which scenario is an example of self-awareness?

A. Recognizing that one feels anxious before oral presentations and using that as a cue to practice more
B. Delegating tasks according to teammates’ strengths
C. Creating a color-coded planner for the semester
D. Noticing that a coworker is upset and asking if the person is okay

Explanation: Identifying one’s own emotional patterns and their triggers is self-awareness. Delegating is leadership, planning is self-management, and noticing a coworker’s feelings is social awareness.

Question 35 
Realizing after a heated meeting that one’s tone was too sharp, and reflecting on how to communicate more calmly next time, is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Social awareness
B. Executive function
C. Communication and leadership
D. Self-awareness

Explanation: Recognizing how one’s own behavior and emotions affected a situation, and reflecting on it, is a core self-awareness skill.

Question 36 
Which scenario is an example of an effective self-management skill?

A. Volunteering to present for a group project
B. Taking a few deep breaths to stay calm before a difficult conversation with a supervisor
C. Noticing that a classmate looks uncomfortable
D. Identifying personal strengths on a career inventory

Explanation: Self-management involves regulating emotions and behavior in order to handle challenges. Staying calm before a difficult conversation is a clear example.

Question 37 
Setting phone reminders and blocking off daily study time to complete assignments before their deadlines is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Self-awareness
B. Self-management
C. Social awareness
D. Communication and leadership

Explanation: Organizing time and resources to meet goals and deadlines is a practical form of self-management.

Question 38 
Noticing that a teammate has gone quiet and looks uncomfortable, and privately asking if the teammate would like to share any concerns, is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Executive function
B. Self-management
C. Social awareness
D. Self-awareness

Explanation: Social awareness is the ability to pick up on other people’s emotions and nonverbal cues and to respond with empathy.

Question 39 
Considering the cultural traditions of coworkers when scheduling team events is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Executive function
B. Self-awareness
C. Social awareness
D. Communication and leadership

Explanation: Understanding and respecting the backgrounds and perspectives of others is a central element of social awareness.

Question 40 
Which scenario is an example of lifelong executive function?

A. Attending a company social event
B. Using the same study method regardless of results
C. Copying a classmate’s notes
D. Comparing several sources before deciding which best supports an argument

Explanation: Executive function involves critical thinking and evaluating information before making decisions. Comparing sources to choose the strongest evidence is a skill that applies throughout life.

Question 41 
Weighing the pros and cons of two job offers before making a decision is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Executive function
B. Self-management
C. Social awareness
D. Self-awareness

Explanation: Analyzing options and anticipating consequences before making a choice reflects executive function, the competency tied to critical thinking and responsible decision-making.

Question 42 
This assessment allowed me to demonstrate my competence in this subject matter.

A. Strongly Disagree
B. Disagree
C. Neutral
D. Agree
E. Strongly Agree
F. N/A or I don’t know

Question 43 
This assessment reflected the types of things that are important for my desired career.

A. Strongly Disagree
B. Disagree
C. Neutral
D. Agree
E. Strongly Agree
F. N/A or I don’t know

Explanation: The content of the assessment aligned with the knowledge and skills needed for my intended career.