H101 – Health, Fitness, and Wellness: Strength Training, Body Composition, Nutrition, and Emotional Well-Being

Question 1 
Which is the body’s first line of defense against pathogens?

A. Fever
B. Antibodies
C. Intact skin
D. Memory cells

Explanation: Intact skin acts as a physical barrier that keeps most pathogens out of the body. Fever, antibodies, and memory cells are part of later, internal immune responses.

Question 2 
A family member has been diagnosed with strep throat, and other household members want to avoid becoming infected.
Which strategy will help reduce the possibility of transmission?

A. Avoid sharing cups and utensils
B. Take extra vitamin supplements
C. Eat more citrus fruit
D. Keep all windows closed

Explanation: Strep throat is spread through respiratory droplets and saliva. Not sharing cups and utensils reduces contact with infected saliva. Vitamins, citrus, and closed windows do not prevent transmission.

Question 3 
A 10-year-old often wheezes and coughs at night, has tightness in the chest, and has more trouble breathing after running or during pollen season.
Which condition causes these symptoms?

A. Diabetes
B. Anemia
C. Asthma
D. Appendicitis

Explanation: Wheezing, nighttime coughing, chest tightness, and breathing trouble triggered by exercise or allergens are characteristic of asthma, a chronic condition in which the airways become inflamed and narrow.

Question 4

A hiker plans to walk through wooded areas where Lyme disease is common. Which two methods should the hiker use to prevent contracting the disease?

Choose 2 answers.

A. Wear sandals and shorts to stay cool.
B. Use insect repellent that contains DEET.
C. Drink extra water on the hike.
D. Check the body for ticks after the hike.

Explanation: Lyme disease is transmitted by tick bites. Repellent helps keep ticks from attaching, and a full-body tick check after the hike lets the hiker remove any attached ticks quickly, which greatly reduces the chance of infection.

Question 5 
Why is body composition an important component of personal physical fitness?

A. It measures the range of motion of the joints
B. It determines lung capacity
C. It indicates the proportion of fat to lean tissue, which is related to health risk
D. It measures the maximum force produced in a single lift

Explanation: Body composition describes how much of the body is fat compared with muscle, bone, and other lean tissue. Excess body fat is linked to conditions such as heart disease and type 2 diabetes.

Question 6 
Which of the following are benefits of strength training?
(Choose 3 answers)

A. Increased bone density
B. Decreased lean muscle mass
C. Greater strength for daily tasks
D. Higher risk of osteoporosis
E. Improved blood sugar regulation

Explanation: Resistance training builds bone density, improves strength for everyday activities, and helps muscles take up glucose more effectively. It increases lean muscle mass and lowers, not raises, the risk of osteoporosis.

Question 7 
After a bee sting, a person’s face begins to swell and the person struggles to breathe. The person has an epinephrine auto-injector. What is the first step to take?

A. Give an antihistamine tablet
B. Have the person lie down and wait for the symptoms to pass
C. Apply ice to the sting site
D. Administer the epinephrine auto-injector

Explanation: Facial swelling and difficulty breathing are signs of anaphylaxis, a life-threatening allergic reaction. Epinephrine must be given immediately, and 911 should be called right after.

Question 8 
What are ways to properly protect hearing?
(Choose 3 answers)

A. Lowering the volume on earbuds
B. Wearing ear protection in loud environments
C. Cleaning deep inside the ear canal with cotton swabs
D. Turning up the volume to drown out background noise
E. Taking breaks from loud environments

Explanation: Keeping headphone volume low, using ear protection around loud noise, and giving the ears regular breaks from loud sounds all reduce the risk of noise-induced hearing loss. Cotton swabs can damage the ear canal, and raising the volume increases exposure.

Question 9 
Which sleep stage is characterized by temporary muscle paralysis that prevents a person from acting out dreams?

A. REM
B. Stage 3
C. Stage 2
D. Stage 1

Explanation: During REM sleep, the brain causes temporary muscle paralysis (atonia) so that the body does not physically act out vivid dreams.

Question 10 
Which statement about melatonin is true?

A. It is a hormone released as darkness increases that helps promote sleep
B. It is released during bright light to promote alertness
C. It is produced only during REM sleep
D. It is a stimulant found in coffee

Explanation: Melatonin is produced by the pineal gland in response to darkness and signals the body that it is time to sleep. Caffeine is the stimulant found in coffee.

Question 11 
Which nutrient provides 4 calories per gram and is essential for building and repairing body tissue?

A. Fat
B. Protein
C. Alcohol
D. Water

Explanation: Protein supplies 4 calories per gram and provides the amino acids the body needs to build and repair muscle and other tissues. Fat provides 9 calories per gram, alcohol provides 7, and water provides none.

Question 12 
Which nutrient promotes regular bowel movements and can help lower blood cholesterol?

A. Sodium
B. Cholesterol
C. Trans fat
D. Dietary fiber

Explanation: Dietary fiber adds bulk to stool and supports regular digestion, and soluble fiber can help reduce blood cholesterol.

Question 13

Sugar Crunch Cereal

Why would this food be a poor choice for an individual managing type 2 diabetes?

A. Excessive saturated fat
B. Excessive cholesterol
C. High in sugar and low in fiber
D. Too much protein

Explanation: Each 40 g serving contains 18 g of sugar (nearly half its weight) and only 1 g of fiber. Foods high in sugar and low in fiber cause rapid rises in blood glucose, which is problematic for someone managing type 2 diabetes.

Question 14 
Which lunch option is appropriate for an individual who has been advised to increase calcium intake?

A. Low-fat yogurt with berries and a glass of milk
B. Beef jerky and crackers
C. Rice cakes with peanut butter
D. Apple slices and plain water

Explanation: Yogurt and milk are among the best dietary sources of calcium. The other options provide little calcium.

Question 15 
Which vitamin is made by the skin when it is exposed to sunlight and helps the body absorb calcium?

A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin D

Explanation: The skin synthesizes vitamin D when exposed to sunlight. Vitamin D helps the intestines absorb calcium, which is essential for strong bones and teeth.

Question 16 
What is true of the DASH diet?

A. It requires eliminating all carbohydrates
B. It emphasizes processed meats
C. It is designed to promote rapid weight gain
D. It emphasizes fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and low-fat dairy while limiting sodium

Explanation: The DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet was developed to lower blood pressure by emphasizing nutrient-rich plant foods and low-fat dairy and by limiting sodium and saturated fat.

Question 17 
Delegating tasks based on team members’ strengths to complete a group project is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Social awareness
B. Self-management
C. Communication and leadership
D. Executive function

Explanation: Assigning roles and guiding a team toward a shared goal demonstrates communication and leadership.

Question 18 
Which activity would be recommended to an individual who wants to improve muscular strength?

A. Yoga
B. Resistance training with free weights
C. Casual walking
D. Casual bike riding

Explanation: Resistance training with free weights challenges muscles against a load, which builds strength. Yoga mainly improves flexibility, and walking and easy cycling are primarily aerobic.

Question 19

Cheese Puffs

Why is the above a poor food choice for an individual trying to control weight through high nutrient density and low calorie intake?

A. The serving size does not represent what an individual would commonly consume.
B. The calories from fat and carbohydrates are nearly equal.
C. The amount of saturated fat is greater than the amount of unsaturated fat.
D. The protein content offsets the high fat content.

Explanation: The listed serving is only 1 oz, about 21 puffs, yet most people eat far more in one sitting, so the real calorie and fat intake is much higher. The puffs also supply little fiber or protein, so they are low in nutrient density.

Question 20 
Which action is an effective way of preventing the consumption of food-borne bacteria?

A. Leave leftovers on the counter until they cool completely
B. Refrigerate leftovers within two hours of cooking
C. Taste a small portion to check for spoilage
D. Keep cooked rice at room temperature overnight

Explanation: Bacteria multiply rapidly at room temperature. Refrigerating cooked food within two hours limits their growth. Tasting food and leaving it out overnight are both unsafe.

Question 21 
Which practice best prevents cross-contamination when grilling meat?

A. Use the same tongs for raw and cooked meat
B. Rinse raw meat before placing it on the grill
C. Use separate plates and utensils for raw and cooked meat
D. Place cooked meat on the plate that held the raw meat

Explanation: Using clean plates and utensils for cooked meat prevents bacteria from raw meat from reaching food that is ready to eat.

Question 22 
Which of the following are common warning signs of an eating disorder?
(Choose 5 answers)

A. Preoccupation with weight, food, and calories
B. Skipping meals or avoiding eating with others
C. Consistently enjoying a variety of foods
D. Frequent trips to the bathroom immediately after meals
E. Wearing baggy clothing to hide body shape
F. Relaxed mealtimes with family
G. Exercising excessively even when ill or injured

Explanation: Intense preoccupation with weight and food, avoiding meals, bathroom trips right after eating, hiding one’s body, and compulsive exercise are recognized warning signs. Enjoying a variety of foods and relaxed mealtimes are not.

Question 23 
What is associated with alternating periods of extremely high energy and deep depression?

A. Panic disorder
B. Bipolar disorder
C. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder

Explanation: Bipolar disorder is characterized by shifts between manic or hypomanic episodes of unusually high energy and depressive episodes.

Question 24 
Which of the following is a type of barrier contraception?

A. The contraceptive injection
B. The vaginal ring
C. The hormonal IUD
D. The cervical cap

Explanation: The cervical cap is a small silicone cup that fits over the cervix and blocks sperm. The injection, ring, and hormonal IUD all release hormones.

Question 25 
Which of the following is a type of hormonal contraception?

A. The oral contraceptive pill
B. The sponge
C. The diaphragm
D. The copper IUD

Explanation: Oral contraceptive pills contain hormones that prevent ovulation. The sponge and diaphragm are barrier methods, and the copper IUD contains no hormones.

Question 26 
Which of the following is a common emotional response in a family member grieving the loss of a loved one?

A. Elation
B. Sadness
C. Amusement
D. Pride

Explanation: Sadness is one of the most common responses to grief, along with anger, guilt, and loneliness.

Question 27 
Which of the following are healthy ways to express and manage emotions?
(Choose 3 answers)

A. Talking with a trusted friend
B. Bottling up feelings
C. Lashing out at others
D. Journaling
E. Physical activity

Explanation: Talking with a supportive person, writing about feelings, and exercising release emotional tension in constructive ways. Suppressing feelings or lashing out tends to increase stress and harm relationships.

Question 28 
Which category of drugs do LSD and psilocybin mushrooms belong?

A. Depressants
B. Stimulants
C. Inhalants
D. Hallucinogens

Explanation: LSD and psilocybin alter perception, mood, and thought, and they cause hallucinations, so they are classified as hallucinogens.

Question 29 
Which of the following are common behavioral indicators of alcohol misuse?
(Choose 5 answers)

A. Drinking alone or in secret
B. Refusing drinks at social events
C. Missing work or school because of drinking
D. Unsuccessful attempts to cut down
E. Drinking in risky situations, such as before driving
F. Attending alcohol-free events
G. Irritability when unable to drink

Explanation: Secretive drinking, missed obligations, failed attempts to cut back, drinking in dangerous situations, and irritability when unable to drink are recognized signs of alcohol misuse. Declining drinks and attending alcohol-free events are not.

Question 30 
An individual sits quietly for ten minutes each morning, focusing on the present moment without judging any thoughts that arise.
Which method is the individual using to reduce stress?

A. Biofeedback
B. Progressive relaxation
C. Mindfulness meditation
D. Stress inoculation

Explanation: Paying attention to the present moment without judgment is the defining practice of mindfulness meditation, which is shown to reduce stress.

Question 31 
During exam week, a student avoids social gatherings and has frequent conflicts with friends and family.
Which type of response to stress is described?

A. Social
B. Physiological
C. Psychological
D. Spiritual

Explanation: Withdrawal from others and strained relationships are changes in how a person interacts with others, which reflects a social response to stress.

Question 32 
Which is a way to strengthen SEL skills?

A. Avoiding feedback
B. Regularly reflecting on experiences and practicing new strategies
C. Ignoring emotions
D. Relying on others to make all decisions

Explanation: SEL skills improve through repeated practice and reflection on what worked and what did not.

Question 33 
Which SEL skill is characterized by understanding others’ perspectives and showing empathy?

A. Self-management
B. Social awareness
C. Executive function
D. Self-awareness

Explanation: Social awareness is the ability to take others’ perspectives, show empathy, and respect diversity.

Question 34 
Which scenario is an example of self-awareness?

A. Setting a weekly study schedule
B. Leading a team meeting
C. Asking coworkers how they feel about a policy
D. Identifying personal strengths and weaknesses after completing a career interest inventory

Explanation: Understanding one’s own strengths and weaknesses is a core part of self-awareness.

Question 35 
Admitting that a mistake on a project was one’s own and considering what led to it is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Self-awareness
B. Communication and leadership
C. Social awareness
D. Executive function

Explanation: Honestly recognizing one’s own role in an outcome and reflecting on the causes demonstrates self-awareness.

Question 36 
Which scenario is an example of an effective self-management skill?

A. Asking a classmate about her cultural traditions
B. Volunteering to run a workshop
C. Waiting until after a stressful situation to respond instead of reacting impulsively
D. Listing one’s core values

Explanation: Pausing to control impulses and respond thoughtfully is a hallmark of self-management.

Question 37 
Using a weekly planner to schedule work shifts, classes, and study sessions is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Social awareness
B. Self-awareness
C. Communication and leadership
D. Self-management

Explanation: Organizing time and commitments to meet responsibilities is a form of self-management.

Question 38 
Understanding that different cultures have different norms for eye contact is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Executive function
B. Social awareness
C. Self-management
D. Self-awareness

Explanation: Recognizing and respecting how social and cultural norms differ is a key part of social awareness.

Question 39 
Surveying team members about how they feel about an upcoming schedule change, in order to understand their concerns, is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Social awareness
B. Executive function
C. Self-awareness
D. Self-management

Explanation: Seeking out how others feel and what worries them is a way of developing social awareness.

Question 40 
Which scenario is an example of lifelong executive function?

A. Reusing the same business plan every year without changes
B. Researching a new industry trend and revising a business plan accordingly
C. Following a supervisor’s instructions without questions
D. Repeating the same task the same way

Explanation: Gathering new information and using it to adjust a plan involves critical thinking and adaptive decision-making, which is executive function.

Question 41 
Analyzing customer complaint data to identify the root cause before proposing a fix is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Social awareness
B. Self-awareness
C. Executive function
D. Self-management

Explanation: Analyzing evidence to understand a problem before recommending a solution is critical thinking and responsible decision-making, which are the hallmarks of executive function.

Question 42 
This assessment allowed me to demonstrate my competence in this subject matter.

A. Strongly Disagree
B. Disagree
C. Neutral
D. Agree
E. Strongly Agree
F. N/A or I don’t know

Question 43 
This assessment reflected the types of things that are important for my desired career.

A. Strongly Disagree
B. Disagree
C. Neutral
D. Agree
E. Strongly Agree
F. N/A or I don’t know

Explanation: The content of the assessment aligned with the knowledge and skills needed for my intended career.