H101 – Health, Fitness, and Wellness: Weight-Bearing Fitness, Food Safety, Mental Health, and Applied SEL

Question 1 
Which substance triggers the immune system to produce antibodies?

A. Antigen
B. Insulin
C. Electrolyte
D. Enzyme

Explanation: An antigen is any foreign substance, such as a protein on a virus or bacterium, that the immune system recognizes as a threat and responds to by producing specific antibodies.

Question 2 
Many people in a crowded office have a contagious respiratory infection. An employee wants to reduce the risk of becoming infected.
Which strategy will help reduce the possibility of infection?

A. Drink extra fluids
B. Take daily vitamin supplements
C. Increase dairy intake
D. Wear a well-fitting mask in crowded indoor spaces

Explanation: Respiratory infections spread through droplets and aerosols. A well-fitting mask reduces both the inhalation and the spread of these particles. Fluids, vitamins, and dairy do not prevent transmission.

Question 3 
A 28-year-old female is often pale and tired, feels dizzy, becomes short of breath with mild exertion, and has cold hands and feet. She also has heavy menstrual periods.
Which condition causes these symptoms?

A. Osteoporosis
B. Hypertension
C. Iron-deficiency anemia
D. Type 1 diabetes

Explanation: Pallor, fatigue, dizziness, shortness of breath, and cold extremities suggest too few healthy red blood cells. Heavy menstrual bleeding is a common cause of iron loss, leading to iron-deficiency anemia.

Question 4

A health educator is explaining how to prevent sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Which two methods should the educator recommend?

Choose 2 answers.

A. Use condoms consistently and correctly.
B. Take birth control pills.
C. Limit the number of sexual partners.
D. Urinate after intercourse.

Explanation: Consistent, correct condom use provides a barrier against many STIs, and having fewer partners reduces exposure. Birth control pills prevent pregnancy but do not protect against STIs, and urinating after intercourse does not prevent them.

Question 5 
Why is weight-bearing exercise important for maintaining personal physical fitness?

A. It lowers the body’s need for calcium
B. It strengthens bones and muscles and helps reduce the risk of osteoporosis
C. It decreases joint flexibility
D. It reduces resting metabolic rate

Explanation: Weight-bearing activities such as walking, jogging, and resistance training stimulate bones to become denser and stronger, which lowers the risk of osteoporosis.

Question 6 
Which of the following are components of the FITT principle used to design an exercise program?
(Choose 3 answers)

A. Frequency
B. Intensity
C. Trend
D. Time
E. Motivation

Explanation: FITT stands for Frequency, Intensity, Time, and Type. These variables describe how often, how hard, and how long a person exercises, and what kind of activity is done.

Question 7 
A student has a small burn on the hand from hot water. What is the first step to take?

A. Apply butter to the burn
B. Pop any blisters
C. Cool the burn under cool running water
D. Apply ice directly to the burn

Explanation: Running cool water over a minor burn for several minutes stops the burning process and reduces pain and damage. Butter can trap heat, and ice can further injure the skin.

Question 8 
What are ways to properly care for the back and prevent back injuries?
(Choose 3 answers)

A. Bending at the knees and keeping the back straight when lifting
B. Twisting the spine while lifting heavy objects
C. Strengthening the core muscles
D. Resting in bed for long periods after every episode of back strain
E. Maintaining good posture when sitting

Explanation: Lifting with the legs, strengthening core muscles, and maintaining good posture all reduce strain on the spine. Twisting under a load increases injury risk, and prolonged bed rest can weaken the muscles that support the back.

Question 9 
Which term describes the pattern of sleep stages that repeats about every 90 minutes during the night?

A. Sleep cycle
B. Circadian rhythm
C. Sleep debt
D. Insomnia

Explanation: A sleep cycle is one full progression through the sleep stages, ending with REM sleep. Most people complete four to six cycles per night.

Question 10 
Which statement about sleep deprivation is true?

A. It improves memory consolidation
B. It lowers the risk of accidents
C. It has no effect on mood
D. It impairs concentration and reaction time

Explanation: Not getting enough sleep reduces attention, slows reaction time, and impairs judgment, which raises the risk of accidents and mistakes.

Question 11 
What term describes the amount of energy the body needs at complete rest to maintain basic functions such as breathing and circulation?

A. Nutrient density
B. Basal metabolic rate
C. Body mass index
D. Resting blood pressure

Explanation: Basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the number of calories the body burns at rest to keep vital functions running.

Question 12 
Which type of dietary fat is found mostly in animal products and tropical oils and is typically solid at room temperature?

A. Monounsaturated
B. Saturated
C. Polyunsaturated
D. Omega-3

Explanation: Saturated fats are found in butter, fatty meats, and coconut and palm oils, and they are typically solid at room temperature. Eating too much of them raises LDL cholesterol.

Question 13

Chicken Pot Pie, Frozen

Why would this food be a poor choice for an individual with cardiovascular disease?

A. Too much protein per serving
B. Too much dietary fiber
C. Too little total fat
D. Contains trans fat and a high amount of saturated fat

Explanation: The label lists 2 g of trans fat and 8 g of saturated fat (40% of the daily value). Both raise LDL cholesterol and the risk of cardiovascular disease, so this pot pie is a poor choice for someone with cardiovascular disease.

Question 14 
Which lunch option is appropriate for an individual who has been advised to manage blood sugar because of type 2 diabetes?

A. Sugary cereal and fruit juice
B. White bread with jelly and sweet tea
C. Grilled chicken with quinoa and steamed vegetables
D. Fruit-flavored yogurt with candy topping

Explanation: Lean protein, whole grains, and non-starchy vegetables raise blood sugar slowly and steadily. The other options are high in added sugars and refined carbohydrates.

Question 15 
Which nutrient supplement should an individual who avoids dairy and fortified foods consider for bone health?

A. Calcium
B. Sodium
C. Vitamin A
D. Iodine

Explanation: Dairy products are a major source of dietary calcium. Someone who avoids dairy and fortified foods is at risk of low calcium intake and may need a supplement to protect bone health.

Question 16 
What is true of lacto-ovo vegetarians?

A. They eat fish
B. They avoid dairy and eggs
C. They eat only raw foods
D. They eat dairy and eggs but no meat, poultry, or fish

Explanation: Lacto-ovo vegetarians include dairy products and eggs in their diet while avoiding meat, poultry, and fish. Vegans avoid all animal products.

Question 17 
Giving constructive, respectful feedback on a peer’s draft during a workshop is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Self-awareness
B. Communication and leadership
C. Social awareness
D. Executive function

Explanation: Communicating feedback clearly and respectfully in a way that helps others improve is a component of communication and leadership.

Question 18 
Which activity would be recommended to an individual who wants to improve flexibility?

A. Sprint intervals
B. Yoga
C. Weightlifting
D. Jumping rope

Explanation: Yoga uses stretching and sustained poses to lengthen muscles and increase joint range of motion. Sprints, weightlifting, and jumping rope emphasize other fitness components.

Question 19

Chocolate Chip Granola Bar

Why is the above a poor food choice for an individual trying to control weight through high nutrient density and low calorie intake?

A. The serving size is much larger than what people commonly eat.
B. The cholesterol content exceeds the daily value.
C. The sodium content exceeds 20% of the daily value.
D. Nearly half of the carbohydrates come from sugar, with little fiber or protein, so nutrient density is low.

Explanation: Of the 21 g of carbohydrate, 11 g are sugars, and the bar provides only 1 g of fiber and 1 g of protein. It supplies calories without many nutrients, so it does not fit a goal of high nutrient density and low calorie intake.

Question 20 
Which action is an effective way of preventing the consumption of food-borne bacteria?

A. Keep hot foods at 140°F or above and cold foods at 40°F or below
B. Leave foods out at room temperature for several hours
C. Rely on smell to judge whether food is safe
D. Rinse cooked meat with warm water

Explanation: Bacteria multiply fastest between 40°F and 140°F, the temperature danger zone. Keeping hot food hot and cold food cold prevents that growth. Smell is not a reliable safety test, and rinsing does not kill bacteria.

Question 21 
Which method is an effective way to reduce contamination on fresh produce?

A. Wash it with dish soap
B. Soak it in a bleach solution
C. Rinse it under running water
D. Wipe it dry with a paper towel only

Explanation: Rinsing produce under running water removes dirt and much of the bacteria on the surface. Soap and bleach can leave harmful residues on food.

Question 22 
Which of the following are common warning signs of dehydration?
(Choose 5 answers)

A. Dark yellow urine
B. Dry mouth and thirst
C. Dizziness or lightheadedness
D. Frequent, clear urination
E. Fatigue
F. Swollen ankles
G. Headache

Explanation: Dark urine, thirst, dizziness, fatigue, and headache are classic signs that the body needs more fluid. Frequent clear urination indicates good hydration, and swollen ankles are not a sign of dehydration.

Question 23 
What is associated with flashbacks, nightmares, and constant alertness for danger after experiencing a traumatic event?

A. Bipolar disorder
B. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
C. Panic disorder
D. Post-traumatic stress disorder

Explanation: Re-experiencing a trauma through flashbacks and nightmares, along with hypervigilance, are hallmark symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).

Question 24 
Which barrier method is inserted into the vagina before intercourse and can also reduce the risk of sexually transmitted infections?

A. The contraceptive implant
B. The oral contraceptive pill
C. The female condom
D. The contraceptive injection

Explanation: The female condom is a barrier method that lines the vagina, blocking sperm and reducing skin contact, so it lowers the risk of pregnancy and many STIs. The other options are hormonal and do not protect against STIs.

Question 25 
Which long-acting hormonal contraceptive is placed under the skin of the upper arm?

A. The contraceptive implant
B. The diaphragm
C. The copper IUD
D. The male condom

Explanation: The implant is a small rod that releases progestin and prevents pregnancy for several years. The diaphragm and condom are barrier methods, and the copper IUD contains no hormones.

Question 26 
Which is the final stage in the Kübler-Ross model of the emotional response to a terminal illness?

A. Bargaining
B. Acceptance
C. Denial
D. Anger

Explanation: Acceptance is the last stage of the model, in which a person comes to terms with the reality of the illness and finds some peace.

Question 27 
Which of the following are components of good mental health?
(Choose 3 answers)

A. The ability to cope with normal stress
B. The absence of all negative emotions
C. Positive self-esteem
D. Healthy relationships
E. Perfectionism

Explanation: Good mental health includes coping with everyday stress, valuing oneself, and maintaining healthy relationships. It does not require never feeling negative emotions, and perfectionism tends to harm well-being.

Question 28 
Which category of drugs do glue, paint thinner, and aerosol sprays belong when they are misused to get high?

A. Depressants
B. Stimulants
C. Inhalants
D. Hallucinogens

Explanation: Household chemicals whose fumes are breathed in to produce a high are classified as inhalants.

Question 29 
Which of the following are strategies that help prevent substance abuse?
(Choose 5 answers)

A. Strong family communication
B. Keeping problems secret
C. Learning refusal skills
D. Spending time with peers who use substances
E. Participating in positive activities
F. Using healthy coping strategies
G. Learning the health risks of substances

Explanation: Open family communication, refusal skills, positive activities, healthy coping, and knowledge of the risks all help people avoid substance use. Keeping problems secret and spending time with peers who use substances increase risk.

Question 30 
An individual writes down worries and thoughts each night before bed in order to clear the mind.
Which method is the individual using to reduce stress?

A. Journaling
B. Biofeedback
C. Guided imagery
D. Progressive relaxation

Explanation: Writing down thoughts and worries helps organize them and reduces mental tension, which is a recognized stress-management technique known as journaling.

Question 31 
During a difficult period, an individual questions the meaning of life and finds comfort in prayer and reflection.
Which type of response to stress is described?

A. Physiological
B. Social
C. Psychological
D. Spiritual

Explanation: Searching for meaning and turning to prayer or reflection for comfort is a spiritual response to stress.

Question 32 
Which is a characteristic of SEL skills?

A. They are transferable across home, school, and work
B. They apply only during childhood
C. They cannot be observed
D. They are mastered once and never change

Explanation: SEL skills such as self-management and communication are useful in every setting, and they continue to develop throughout life.

Question 33 
Which SEL skill is characterized by expressing ideas clearly and guiding others toward shared goals?

A. Self-awareness
B. Executive function
C. Communication and leadership
D. Self-management

Explanation: Communication and leadership include expressing ideas clearly, listening, and motivating others to work toward a common goal.

Question 34 
Which scenario is an example of self-awareness?

A. Creating a study calendar
B. Recognizing that feeling defensive when receiving criticism is a personal emotional trigger
C. Delegating tasks to teammates
D. Noticing that a friend is quiet during a conversation

Explanation: Identifying one’s own emotional triggers and how they affect behavior is self-awareness. The other options describe self-management, leadership, and social awareness.

Question 35 
Recognizing that feeling overwhelmed is a sign that it is time to ask for help is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Social awareness
B. Self-awareness
C. Communication and leadership
D. Executive function

Explanation: Noticing one’s own emotional state and understanding what it signals is a core part of self-awareness.

Question 36 
Which scenario is an example of an effective self-management skill?

A. Asking a friend how she feels about a decision
B. Leading a group discussion
C. Using a countdown timer and taking short breaks to stay focused on assignments
D. Considering the perspective of a coworker

Explanation: Structuring work with timers and breaks to maintain focus is a practical example of self-management.

Question 37 
Prioritizing tasks by deadline and importance each morning is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Self-management
B. Social awareness
C. Self-awareness
D. Communication and leadership

Explanation: Organizing and prioritizing tasks to meet goals is a hallmark of self-management.

Question 38 
Recognizing that a friend’s silence during a conversation may signal discomfort is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Executive function
B. Social awareness
C. Self-awareness
D. Self-management

Explanation: Reading social and emotional cues in others, including silence and body language, is a key aspect of social awareness.

Question 39 
Attending a diversity workshop to better understand the experiences of colleagues is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Executive function
B. Self-awareness
C. Social awareness
D. Self-management

Explanation: Learning about the experiences and perspectives of people from different backgrounds builds social awareness.

Question 40 
Which scenario is an example of lifelong executive function?

A. Attending an annual industry conference
B. Making decisions without gathering information
C. Avoiding review of past mistakes
D. Reflecting on how a decision turned out and adjusting the approach used for future decisions

Explanation: Learning from outcomes and revising one’s decision-making process is critical thinking that continues throughout life, which is a key element of executive function.

Question 41 
Weighing evidence from multiple reports before recommending a policy change to leadership is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Executive function
B. Self-awareness
C. Self-management
D. Social awareness

Explanation: Evaluating evidence before making a recommendation is critical thinking and responsible decision-making, which are the hallmarks of executive function.

Question 42 
This assessment allowed me to demonstrate my competence in this subject matter.

A.      Strongly Disagree
B. Disagree
C. Neutral
D. Agree
E. Strongly Agree
F. N/A or I don’t know

B.       

Question 43 
This assessment reflected the types of things that are important for my desired career.

A. Strongly Disagree
B. Disagree
C. Neutral
D. Agree
E. Strongly Agree
F. N/A or I don’t know

Explanation: The content of the assessment aligned with the knowledge and skills needed for my intended career.