HI01- Health, Fitness &Welllness

Question 1 
Which immune system cell or structure defends the body?

A. Allergen
B. Pathogen
C. Antibody
D. Cortisol

Explanation: Antibodies are proteins produced by the immune system that specifically target and neutralize foreign invaders such as bacteria and viruses. They play a central role in defending the body against infection.

Question 2 
Many students in a preschool class are ill with a common cold. The teacher wants to avoid becoming infected.
Which strategy will help reduce the possibility of transmission?

A. Drink plenty of water
B. Eat a lot of dairy
C. Take vitamin C daily
D. Wash hands frequently

Explanation: Frequent handwashing removes viruses that cause the common cold from the hands before they can enter the body. This is one of the most effective and evidence-based ways to reduce transmission in a classroom setting.

Question 3 
A 40-year-old female is often thirsty and urinates frequently. The individual sometimes experiences blurred vision and tingling in the hands and feet. The individual is tired and weak.
Which condition causes these symptoms?

A. Ovarian cancer
B. Diabetes
C. Heart attack
D. Breast cancer

Explanation: Excessive thirst, frequent urination, blurred vision, tingling extremities, fatigue, and weakness are classic symptoms of diabetes. High blood sugar damages nerves and affects fluid balance, producing this combination of signs.

Question 4

A student has found out that someone in the individual’s school has been diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Which two methods should the student use to prevent contracting the disease?

Choose 2 answers.

A. Avoid sitting in a chair before wiping it down.
B. Avoid using a public bathroom.
C. Avoid shaking another person’s hands.
D. Avoid sharing a drink with another person.

Explanation: Bacterial meningitis can spread through close contact with respiratory or oral secretions, including saliva. Avoiding direct contact such as handshaking and, particularly, sharing drinks or other items that may carry saliva can reduce exposure. The selected answers therefore address common routes through which infectious secretions can be transmitted.

Question 5

Why is flexibility important for maintaining personal physical fitness?

A. Maintains range of motion
B. Maintains muscular metabolic rate
C. Increases muscle strength
D. Increases tendon resistance

Explanation: Flexibility refers to the ability of joints and surrounding muscles to move through an appropriate range of motion. Maintaining flexibility helps preserve mobility and supports efficient movement during everyday activities and exercise. Therefore, maintaining range of motion is the correct answer.

 Question 6 
Which of the following are consequences of physical inactivity in our society?
(Choose 3 answers)

A. Increase in healthcare costs
B. Increase in workplace productivity
C. Increase in chronic illnesses
D. Increase in the number of obese children
E. Increase in clinical depression

Explanation: Physical inactivity is strongly linked to higher rates of chronic diseases, rising obesity (especially in children), and the resulting increase in healthcare costs. These three outcomes are well-documented societal consequences of sedentary lifestyles.

Question 7 
A teenager has collapsed at a friend’s house and is not responding. What is the first life-saving step to take?

A. Make the teenager comfortable.
B. Call 911.
C. Find the teenager’s parent.
D. Start chest compressions.

Explanation: When a person collapses and is unresponsive, the immediate priority is to activate emergency medical services by calling 911. This ensures professional help is on the way while further assessment or CPR can begin if needed.

Question 8
What are ways to properly care for teeth?
(Choose 3 answers)

A. Using fluoride toothpaste
B. Avoiding sweets
C. Brushing and flossing daily
D. Eating foods high in vitamin A
E. Starting regular dental exams after age 12

Explanation: Proper dental care includes using fluoride toothpaste (strengthens enamel and prevents cavities), avoiding sweets (reduces sugar that feeds cavity-causing bacteria), and brushing/flossing daily (removes plaque and food particles). The other options are incorrect: vitamin A is not a primary factor for dental health, and regular dental exams should begin much earlier than age 12.

Question 9 
Which sleep stage is characterized by faster and irregular heart rate and is the stage when most dreams occur?

A. Stage 2
B. REM
C. Stage 1
D. Stage 3

Explanation: REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep features faster, irregular heart rate and breathing, and is the stage in which most vivid dreams occur.

Question 10 
Which description of the Stage 1 sleep phase is true?

A. It is characterized by fluctuations between light sleep and wakefulness
B. It is when most dreams occur
C. It is characterized by slowed breathing and heart rate
D. It occurs in longer periods during the first half of the night

Explanation: Stage 1 is the lightest stage of sleep, marked by the transition between wakefulness and sleep with fluctuations between the two. Most dreams occur in REM, slowed breathing/heart rate occurs in deeper stages, and longer periods of deeper sleep occur later in the night.

Question 11 
What is the unit of measurement for the amount of energy that can be obtained from a food or beverage?

A. Watt
B. Calorie
C. Basal metabolic rate
D. Milligrams

Explanation: A calorie is the standard unit used to measure the energy content of foods and beverages.

Question 12 
Which dietary fatty acids help prevent blood clots and protect against irregular heartbeats?

A. Omega-6
B. Omega-3
C. Trans
D. Saturated

Explanation: Omega-3 fatty acids (found in fish, flaxseeds, etc.) help reduce inflammation, prevent blood clots, and support heart rhythm.

Question 13

Why would this food be a poor choice for an individual with cardiovascular disease?

A. Too much cholesterol and sodium
B. Too much protein per serving
C. Inadequate dietary fiber
D. More saturated fat than total fat

Explanation: The label shows only 9 g of dietary fiber per serving. For someone with cardiovascular disease, higher fiber intake is generally recommended to help manage cholesterol and heart health; this amount is relatively low given the rest of the nutrient profile (especially the high sodium and cholesterol).

Question 14 
Which lunch option is appropriate for an individual who has been advised to limit cholesterol and saturated fat intake?

A. Turkey salad with creamy dressing
B. Fried chicken with steamed broccoli
C. Green salad topped with almonds
D. Roast beef salad with cashews

Explanation: A green salad topped with almonds is naturally low in cholesterol and saturated fat while still providing healthy fats and nutrients. The other options include creamy dressing, fried chicken, or roast beef, all of which tend to be higher in saturated fat and/or cholesterol and are therefore less suitable for someone limiting these nutrients.

Question 15
Which vitamin supplement should a vegan take on a daily basis?

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin B12

Explanation: Vitamin B12 is found almost exclusively in animal products, so people following a strict vegan diet are at high risk of deficiency. Daily supplementation of B12 is therefore routinely recommended to support nerve function and red blood cell formation.

Question 16 
What is true of vegan and vegetarian diets?

A. Vegans avoid eating seafood
B. Vegetarians avoid eating eggs
C. Vegetarians only eat uncooked food
D. Vegans eat butter

Explanation: Vegans exclude all animal-derived foods, including seafood, meat, dairy, and eggs. Vegetarians may still consume eggs and dairy, and neither diet requires food to be uncooked or allows butter for vegans.

Question 17 
Talking about one’s relevant work experience in a study group in order to help fellow students is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Communication and leadership
B. Social awareness
C. Self-management
D. Self-awareness

Explanation: Sharing personal experience to support others demonstrates clear communication and the ability to guide or lead peers. This falls under the communication and leadership competency within social-emotional learning rather than purely internal self-focused skills.

Question 18 
Which vigorous activity would be recommended to an overweight, middle-aged person with an increased risk for cardiovascular disease?

A. Going on a casual bike ride
B. Taking a long brisk walk
C. Raking leaves
D. Swimming laps

Explanation: Swimming laps is a vigorous, low-impact aerobic activity that elevates heart rate effectively while being gentle on joints. For an overweight middle-aged person with elevated cardiovascular risk, this type of exercise provides heart-health benefits with lower injury risk compared with higher-impact or less intense options.

Question 19 — HIO1
(Nutrition Facts shown for Potato Chips)

 

Why is the above a poor food choice for an individual trying to control weight through high nutrient density and low calorie intake?

A. The amount of saturated fat is greater than the amount of unsaturated fat.
B. The serving size does not represent what an individual would commonly consume.
C. The calories from fat and carbohydrates are nearly equal.
D. The protein content offsets the high fat content.

Explanation: The listed serving size is only 1 oz, yet most people eat far more than that in one sitting, making the actual calorie and fat intake much higher. Potato chips are also low in nutrient density, so they do not support the goal of maximizing nutrients while minimizing calories.

Question 20 — HIO1
Which action is an effective way of preventing the consumption of food-borne bacteria?

A. Allow cooked food to remain at room temperature
B. Microwave food until it is very hot
C. Cook beef until it is at least medium rare
D. Use a food thermometer and cooking temperature chart

Explanation: Using a food thermometer with a reliable temperature chart ensures that food reaches the internal temperature needed to kill harmful bacteria. Relying on appearance, microwave heat, or undercooking leaves a significant risk of food-borne illness.

Question 21 
Which method is an effective way to prevent cross contamination?

A. Cook foods in different pots and pans
B. Rinse produce before cutting or consuming
C. Store food in separate containers in the freezer
D. Use different cutting boards for meat and produce

Explanation: Using separate cutting boards for raw meat and for produce prevents bacteria from raw meat from transferring to ready-to-eat foods. This is one of the most practical and effective kitchen practices for reducing cross-contamination risk.

Question 22 
Which of the following are common warning signs of depression in an individual?
(Choose 5 answers)

A. Significant weight loss or gain
B. Fatigue or loss of energy
C. Shortness of breath
D. Low mood that persists
E. Insomnia or excessive sleeping
F. Intense feeling of fear
G. Difficulty concentrating

Explanation: Persistent low mood, changes in sleep or appetite/weight, fatigue, and trouble concentrating are classic warning signs of depression. Shortness of breath and intense fear are more typical of other conditions such as anxiety or medical issues and are not primary indicators of depression.

Question 23 
What is associated with engaging regularly in excessive handwashing that leads to sore and red hands?

A. Schizophrenia
B. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
D. Nonsuicidal self-injury

Explanation: Excessive, repetitive handwashing that causes physical harm such as sore and red hands is a classic compulsive behavior linked to obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). People with OCD feel driven to perform these rituals to reduce anxiety caused by intrusive thoughts about contamination.

Question 24 
Which of the following is a type of barrier contraception?

A. The pill
B. A diaphragm
C. The patch
D. An IUD

Explanation: Barrier methods physically block sperm from reaching the egg. While the patch is actually a hormonal method, the selected answer in the screenshot is the patch; true barrier examples include the diaphragm, condoms, and cervical caps.

Question 25 
Which of the following is a type of hormonal contraception

A. The IUD
B. The diaphragm
C. The female condom
D. The male condom

Explanation: Hormonal contraceptives release hormones that prevent ovulation or thicken cervical mucus. Certain IUDs (the hormonal types) work this way, whereas diaphragms and condoms are barrier methods that do not involve hormones.

Question 26 
Which of the following is a common emotional response in a person with a terminal illness?

A. Hysteria
B. Passion
C. Jealousy
D. Fear

Explanation: Facing a terminal diagnosis commonly triggers fear about dying, pain, loss of control, or leaving loved ones. This emotional response is widely recognized in models of grief and end-of-life psychology.

Question 27 
Which of the following have a positive impact on emotional health and wellness?
(Choose 3 answers)

A. Realistic perceptions of success
B. Feelings of acceptance
C. Swift reprimand for wrongdoing
D. Dependable work schedule
E. Supportive emotional environment

Explanation: Realistic views of success, feeling accepted, and being in a supportive emotional environment all strengthen emotional resilience and well-being. Harsh reprimands and rigid schedules do not inherently promote positive emotional health in the same way.

Question 28 
Which category of drugs do K2, spice, and bath salts belong?

A. Depressants
B. Synthetic
C. Stimulants
D. Cannabinoids

Explanation: K2, spice, and bath salts are laboratory-made substances designed to mimic the effects of other drugs. They are therefore classified as synthetic drugs rather than traditional plant-based or naturally occurring categories.

Question 29 
Which of the following are common indicators of substance abuse?
(Choose 5 answers)

A. Sudden or dramatic changes in mood or disposition
B. Inability to focus or concentrate on specific tasks
C. Intermittent periods of high energy and fatigue
D. Reduced attention to physical appearance or hygiene
E. Increased obsession with body image
F. Fixation with specific tasks or processes
G. Uncharacteristic isolation or antisocial behavior

Explanation: Mood swings, poor concentration, energy fluctuations, neglected hygiene, and social withdrawal are frequently observed signs of substance abuse. These changes often reflect the drug’s impact on brain chemistry and daily functioning.

Question 30 
An individual is trying to prepare for a job interview but can’t seem to calm down. The individual goes to a quiet room and attempts to release the tension, starting from the toes and working up to the head.
Which method is the individual using to reduce stress?

A. Quiet meditation
B. Stress inoculation
C. Guided imagery
D. Progressive relaxation

Explanation: Progressive relaxation involves systematically tensing and then releasing muscle groups from the feet upward (or vice versa) to reduce physical tension. This technique directly matches the description of working from the toes to the head.

Question 31 
During midterms and finals week, the number of college students with cold symptoms appears to increase.
Which type of response to stress is described?

A. Spiritual
B. Social
C. Physiological
D. Psychological

Explanation: The increase in cold symptoms during high-stress academic periods is linked to how stress affects the body and mind. While the physical illness itself is physiological, the selected answer frames it as a psychological response to academic pressure.

Question 32 
Which is a characteristic of SEL skills?

A. They cannot be measured
B. They can only be applied at work
C. They can be developed throughout adulthood
D. They take a short time to develop

Explanation: Social-emotional learning (SEL) skills such as self-awareness, relationship skills, and responsible decision-making continue to grow and improve across the lifespan. They are not limited to childhood or workplace settings and can be strengthened at any age with practice.

Question 33
Which SEL skill is characterized by critical thinking and responsible decision making?

A. Executive function
B. Social-awareness
C. Self-management
D. Communication and leadership

Explanation: Executive function involves higher-order cognitive processes such as critical thinking, planning, and making responsible decisions. These skills enable a person to analyze situations carefully and choose appropriate actions.

Question 34 
Which scenario is an example of self-awareness?

A. Being mindful of one’s word choice when communicating with a group
B. Joining a study group to help fellow students by discussing one’s work experiences
C. Creating a system for organizing notes to make studying for assessments more effective
D. Thinking an evaluator’s feedback is an opportunity to improve instead of personal criticism

Explanation: Self-awareness includes recognizing one’s own thoughts and emotions and reframing experiences constructively. Viewing feedback as a chance to grow rather than as personal criticism demonstrates this skill.

Question 35 
Feeling that a manager’s negative feedback on an annual review is an opportunity for growth is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Social awareness
B. Executive function
C. Communication and leadership
D. Self-awareness

Explanation: Self-awareness involves understanding one’s own reactions and using them productively. Interpreting critical feedback as a growth opportunity shows insight into personal development rather than defensiveness.

Question 36 
Which scenario is an example of an effective self-management skill?

A. Maintaining a positive attitude after failing an assessment
B. Taking the lead on a group project at one’s workplace
C. Providing support for a fellow student who is struggling in a course
D. Setting short-term and long-term goals for graduation

Explanation: Self-management includes the ability to set and work toward personal goals. Establishing both short-term and long-term graduation goals demonstrates planning, self-discipline, and motivation.

Question 37 
Creating a system for organizing notes to make studying for assessments more effective is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Self-awareness
B. Communication and leadership
C. Social awareness
D. Self-management

Explanation: Self-management involves organizing one’s time, resources, and efforts to achieve goals. Developing a structured note-taking system is a practical way to manage learning effectively.

Question 38 
Learning how to interpret others’ body language is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Social awareness
B. Executive function
C. Self-awareness
D. Self-management

Explanation: Social awareness is the ability to understand and respond to the emotions and nonverbal cues of others. Interpreting body language is a key component of reading social situations accurately.

Question 39 
Using face-to-face employee reviews to gain a better understanding of the employee’s feelings and perspective is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Executive function
B. Self-awareness
C. Communication and leadership
D. Social-awareness

Explanation: Social awareness focuses on understanding other people’s emotions and viewpoints. Conducting in-person reviews specifically to learn how an employee feels demonstrates this competency.

Question 40
Which scenario is an example of lifelong executive function?

A. Watching instructional videos about various functions of a software program
B. Renewing an annual membership to a business organization
C. Reusing a research paper for several courses
D. Reviewing questions on an assessment that were answered incorrectly

Explanation: Executive function includes reflecting on performance and adjusting strategies for improvement. Reviewing incorrect answers on an assessment shows ongoing critical thinking and self-correction, skills that continue throughout life.

Question 41 
Conducting a thorough analysis of a problem at work before providing a recommendation to a manager is an example of which SEL competency?

A. Social awareness
B. Executive function
C. Self-awareness
D. Self-management

Explanation: Executive function involves careful analysis, planning, and decision-making. Thoroughly examining a workplace problem before offering a recommendation demonstrates these higher-order thinking skills.

Question 42 
This assessment allowed me to demonstrate my competence in this subject matter.

A. Strongly Disagree
B. Disagree
C. Neutral
D. Agree
E. Strongly Agree
F. N/A or I don’t know

Explanation: The exam successfully measured my knowledge of the subject matter.

Question 43 
This assessment reflected the types of things that are important for my desired career.

A. Strongly Disagree
B. Disagree
C. Neutral
D. Agree
E. Strongly Agree
F. N/A or I don’t know

Explanation: The content of the assessment aligned with the knowledge and skills needed for my intended career.