HI01 – Health, Fitness & Wellness: Foundations of Health and Wellness

1. Which structure filters lymph fluid and traps pathogens before they can enter the bloodstream?

•          Heart

•          Liver

•          Lymph nodes

•          Pancreas
Explanation: Lymph nodes act as filtration stations along the lymphatic system, trapping bacteria, viruses, and other foreign particles carried in lymph fluid. Specialized immune cells housed within the nodes, including lymphocytes and macrophages, identify and destroy these pathogens before they can spread further into the body. This filtering process is a key part of the body's ability to contain infection at a local level before it becomes systemic.

2. Match each function with the corresponding body system.

•          Filters waste products from the blood: Urinary system

•          Produces hormones that regulate metabolism: Endocrine system

•          Facilitates gas exchange with the environment: Respiratory system

•          Transports oxygen and nutrients throughout the body: Circulatory system

•          Breaks down food into absorbable nutrients: Digestive system
Explanation: Each body system performs a specialized role that contributes to overall homeostasis. The urinary system removes metabolic waste, the endocrine system releases hormones that regulate long-term processes such as metabolism, and the respiratory system enables oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange. Together with the circulatory and digestive systems, these components work in coordination to sustain the body's energy needs and internal balance.

3. Which two health conditions are of greatest concern for a middle-aged male with a BMI of 32 who has a sedentary desk job and a family history of heart disease? (Choose 2)

•          Rheumatic fever

•          Type 2 diabetes

•          Cardiovascular disease

•          Seasonal allergies
Explanation: A high BMI combined with prolonged inactivity significantly raises insulin resistance, making type 2 diabetes a major concern for this individual. When this is paired with a family history of heart disease, the risk of cardiovascular complications such as atherosclerosis and hypertension also rises sharply. These two conditions share overlapping risk factors, meaning that improving diet and activity levels can reduce the likelihood of both simultaneously.

4. A food handler was diagnosed with hepatitis B. Which approach is most effective at preventing this type of infection in coworkers?

•          Getting a vaccination

•          Wearing gloves only when handling raw meat

•          Increasing water intake

•          Taking daily multivitamins
Explanation: Hepatitis B is a bloodborne virus that can also be transmitted through contact with other bodily fluids, making vaccination the most reliable long-term protection available. Unlike hepatitis A, which spreads primarily through the fecal-oral route, hepatitis B requires a different immunological response that only vaccination can reliably provide. For individuals in workplaces with potential exposure, immunization offers durable protection that hygiene practices alone cannot match.

5. What are some effects of regular aerobic exercise on the cardiovascular system? (Choose 3)

•          Lowers resting heart rate

•          Increases capillary density in trained muscles

•          Reduces total blood volume

•          Improves the heart's stroke volume

•          Decreases lung capacity
Explanation: Consistent aerobic training conditions the heart to become more efficient, allowing it to pump a greater volume of blood per beat and therefore lower the resting heart rate over time. Trained skeletal muscles also develop a denser capillary network, improving oxygen and nutrient delivery during exertion. These combined adaptations increase the efficiency of the entire cardiovascular system rather than diminishing its capacity.

6. Which of the following are common consequences of prolonged physical inactivity? (Choose 3)

•          Improved bone density

•          Increased risk of type 2 diabetes

•          Loss of muscle mass and strength

•          Higher rates of anxiety and depression

•          Decreased healthcare spending
Explanation: A sedentary lifestyle is strongly associated with metabolic changes that increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes, as inactive muscles become less responsive to insulin. Without regular use, muscle tissue also atrophies, leading to reduced strength and functional capacity over time. Physical inactivity has additionally been linked to poorer mental health outcomes, including higher rates of anxiety and depressive symptoms.

7. When is the use of an AED (automated external defibrillator) most appropriate?

•          For a person with a minor cut

•          For an adult in sudden cardiac arrest with no pulse

•          For someone experiencing a mild headache

•          For a person who has fainted briefly and recovered
Explanation: An AED is designed to analyze the heart's rhythm and deliver a controlled shock to restore a normal rhythm in cases of sudden cardiac arrest, where the heart has stopped pumping effectively. It should be used as soon as possible alongside CPR, since early defibrillation dramatically increases the chances of survival. It is not appropriate for minor injuries or situations where the person retains a pulse and normal breathing.

8. What are recommended practices for maintaining proper oral hygiene? (Choose 3)

•          Flossing at least once daily

•          Replacing a toothbrush every 3-4 months

•          Rinsing with mouthwash instead of brushing

•          Scheduling routine dental cleanings

•          Brushing only when teeth feel rough
Explanation: Daily flossing removes plaque and food particles from between teeth that a toothbrush cannot reach, helping to prevent gum disease and cavities. Toothbrushes lose their effectiveness as bristles wear down, so replacing them regularly ensures adequate plaque removal. Routine professional cleanings allow a dentist to remove hardened tartar and catch early signs of decay before they progress.

9. Which sleep stage is characterized by rapid eye movement and is most associated with vivid dreaming?

•          Stage 1

•          Stage 3

•          REM sleep

•          Stage 2
Explanation: REM (rapid eye movement) sleep is the stage in which brain activity closely resembles wakefulness, and it is during this period that the most vivid and memorable dreams occur. The body experiences temporary muscle paralysis during REM sleep, which is thought to prevent people from physically acting out their dreams. This stage plays an important role in memory consolidation and emotional processing.

10. What is the recommended amount of sleep per night for a teenager between 14 and 17 years old?

•          6-7 hours

•          8-10 hours

•          11-13 hours

•          4-5 hours
Explanation: Teenagers undergo significant physical growth and brain development, both of which are supported by adequate rest of 8 to 10 hours per night. Insufficient sleep in this age group has been linked to difficulty concentrating, mood instability, and weakened immune function. Establishing consistent sleep schedules during adolescence helps support academic performance and long-term health habits.

11. Match each function with the corresponding nutrient category.

•          Serves as the primary building block for muscle tissue: Protein

•          Provides insulation and cushions internal organs: Fats

•          Supplies quick, readily available energy for the body: Carbohydrates

•          Aids in the production of enzymes and antibodies: Protein

•          Supports absorption of fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K: Fats

•          Is the preferred fuel source for the brain: Carbohydrates
Explanation: Proteins provide the amino acids necessary to build and repair muscle tissue and to manufacture enzymes and antibodies used by the immune system. Fats serve a protective function by cushioning organs and are essential for absorbing certain vitamins that dissolve only in fat. Carbohydrates remain the body's most immediate energy source, particularly for the brain, which relies heavily on glucose to function.

12. Which unit is commonly used to measure the energy content of food?

•          Watt

•          Kilocalorie

•          Pascal

•          Decibel
Explanation: A kilocalorie, often simply referred to as a calorie on nutrition labels, is the standard unit used to express how much energy a food provides to the body. It reflects the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of a kilogram of water by one degree Celsius. Tracking kilocalorie intake helps individuals balance the energy they consume against the energy expended through activity and metabolism.

13. Why might a nutritionist recommend brown rice over white rice?

•          It contains fewer carbohydrates overall

•          It retains more fiber and micronutrients

•          It has a longer shelf life

•          It cooks more quickly
Explanation: Brown rice retains its bran and germ layers during processing, which preserves dietary fiber along with vitamins and minerals like magnesium and B vitamins. White rice, by contrast, has these layers removed, stripping away much of its nutritional value. The added fiber in brown rice also supports digestive health and helps regulate blood sugar levels more effectively than refined alternatives.

14. Which of the following is considered a nutrient-dense snack option?

•          Greek yogurt with berries

•          Candy bar

•          Fried chicken wings

•          Soda
Explanation: Greek yogurt with berries combines protein, probiotics, and antioxidants in a single snack, offering sustained energy without excessive added sugar. Unlike processed sweets or fried foods, this option supports satiety and provides nutritional benefits beyond simple caloric intake. Choosing snacks like this over highly processed alternatives helps maintain stable blood sugar and supports overall wellness.

15. Which food group do individuals following a strict vegetarian (lacto-ovo) diet typically still consume?

•          Poultry

•          Fish

•          Eggs

•          Beef
Explanation: Lacto-ovo vegetarians exclude all meat, poultry, and fish from their diet but continue to consume animal-derived products such as eggs and dairy. This distinguishes them from vegans, who avoid all animal products entirely. The inclusion of eggs allows this diet to provide complete protein without relying on animal flesh.

16. Which symptom is most indicative of a severe, potentially life-threatening food allergy reaction?

•          Mild itching of the lips

•          Swelling of the throat and difficulty swallowing

•          Slight bloating

•          Occasional burping
Explanation: Swelling of the throat is a key warning sign of anaphylaxis, a severe allergic reaction in which the airway can become dangerously constricted. This reaction occurs when the immune system releases a flood of chemicals in response to a perceived threat, causing rapid and potentially fatal airway obstruction. Immediate medical intervention, often including epinephrine, is required when these symptoms appear.

17. What health benefit is most likely to result from maintaining a healthy body weight through balanced nutrition and regular exercise?

•          Increased resting heart rate

•          Lower risk of type 2 diabetes

•          Weakened immune response

•          Reduced bone density
Explanation: Maintaining a healthy weight improves the body's sensitivity to insulin, which directly reduces the risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Excess body fat, particularly around the abdomen, is strongly linked to insulin resistance and metabolic dysfunction. By managing weight through diet and exercise, individuals can significantly lower their long-term risk of chronic metabolic disease.

18. A competitive bodybuilder has a BMI of 29, technically placing them in the overweight category. What is the most appropriate interpretation of this result?

•          The individual should immediately begin a weight-loss program

•          BMI may misclassify this individual due to high muscle mass

•          The individual has a dangerously high body fat percentage

•          BMI is always the most accurate measure of health for athletes
Explanation: BMI is calculated using only height and weight, so it cannot differentiate between muscle mass and fat mass. Because muscle is denser than fat, highly muscular individuals like bodybuilders often register a BMI in the overweight or obese range despite having low body fat. A more accurate assessment for such individuals would involve body composition testing rather than BMI alone.

19. Which food item should be thoroughly washed before consumption to reduce the risk of bacterial contamination?

•          Apples

•          Ground beef

•          Raw chicken

•          Pork chops
Explanation: Washing produce such as apples helps remove dirt, pesticide residue, and surface bacteria before they are eaten raw. Raw meats like beef, chicken, and pork should never be rinsed under running water, since doing so can splash harmful bacteria onto nearby surfaces and utensils. Proper handling of fruits and vegetables is an important food safety step that differs significantly from the handling required for raw proteins.

20. At which point is handwashing most critical for preventing the spread of illness?

•          Before folding laundry

•          After using the restroom

•          Before watching television

•          After reading a book
Explanation: Washing hands after using the restroom removes bacteria such as E. coli that can easily spread to other surfaces and cause gastrointestinal illness. This is considered one of the most important moments for hand hygiene because of the high likelihood of fecal-oral contamination. Consistent handwashing at this critical point significantly reduces the transmission of infectious disease within households and communities.

21. Which of the following are recognized warning signs of anxiety disorders? (Choose 4)

•          Excessive worry that is difficult to control

•          Restlessness or feeling on edge

•          Improved concentration

•          Muscle tension

•          Increased energy levels

•          Sleep disturbances
Explanation: Anxiety disorders are typically marked by persistent, difficult-to-control worry that interferes with daily functioning, along with physical symptoms such as restlessness and muscle tension. Sleep disturbances are also common, as an overactive stress response can make it difficult for individuals to fall or stay asleep. These combined cognitive and physical symptoms distinguish clinical anxiety from ordinary, situational nervousness.

22. Which eating disorder is characterized by severe restriction of food intake and an intense fear of gaining weight?

•          Bulimia

•          Binge eating disorder

•          Anorexia nervosa

•          Pica
Explanation: Anorexia nervosa involves a persistent restriction of caloric intake driven by an intense fear of weight gain, even when the individual is already underweight. This disorder often includes a distorted perception of one's own body shape and size, leading to dangerously low body weight. Left untreated, anorexia can result in severe medical complications, including organ damage and cardiac problems.

23. Which scenario is an example of workplace sexual harassment?

•          Denying a promotion based solely on qualifications

•          Repeatedly commenting on a coworker's appearance despite being asked to stop

•          Requiring all employees to complete the same training

•          Enforcing a company-wide dress code
Explanation: Continuing to make unwanted comments about a coworker's appearance after being explicitly asked to stop constitutes harassment because it disregards the other person's clearly stated boundaries. This behavior creates a hostile and uncomfortable work environment, which is a violation of workplace conduct standards. Employers are required to address such behavior promptly to maintain a safe and respectful workplace.

24. A partner who consistently controls all household finances and prevents the other partner from having independent access to money is exhibiting which type of abuse?

•          Physical

•          Financial

•          Sexual

•          Environmental
Explanation: Financial abuse occurs when one partner restricts the other's access to money or economic resources as a means of exerting control over the relationship. This form of abuse can trap a victim in the relationship by limiting their ability to become financially independent. Recognizing financial control as a legitimate form of abuse is important, since it often occurs alongside other, more visible forms of mistreatment.

25. According to the Kubler-Ross model, which psychological stages are commonly experienced by someone processing a terminal diagnosis? (Choose 5)

•          Denial

•          Anger

•          Bargaining

•          Depression

•          Acceptance

•          Euphoria

•          Confusion
Explanation: The Kubler-Ross model identifies five stages that individuals commonly move through when confronting terminal illness or profound loss: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. These stages are not always experienced in a fixed order and can overlap or recur as the person processes their situation. The framework provides a useful lens for understanding the complex emotional journey associated with facing mortality.

26. Which traits are commonly associated with individuals who demonstrate healthy self-esteem? (Choose 4)

•          Accepting constructive criticism without becoming defensive

•          Setting realistic personal goals

•          Believing they are superior to others

•          Expressing their needs assertively

•          Maintaining supportive relationships

•          Avoiding all forms of failure
Explanation: People with healthy self-esteem are generally able to accept feedback constructively rather than reacting defensively, since their sense of self-worth is not overly dependent on external validation. They tend to set realistic goals, communicate their needs assertively, and cultivate supportive relationships that reinforce a stable sense of identity. These traits differ meaningfully from an inflated sense of superiority, which reflects insecurity rather than genuine confidence.

27. Which characteristics contribute to the high potential for abuse associated with opioid painkillers? (Choose 4)

•          They are widely prescribed for pain management

•          They activate the brain's reward pathways

•          They rapidly build physical tolerance and dependence

•          They have no legitimate medical use

•          Withdrawal symptoms can be severe
Explanation: Opioids are frequently prescribed for legitimate pain relief, which increases the number of people who are initially exposed to the drug. Because they strongly activate the brain's reward circuitry, users can develop tolerance quickly, requiring higher doses to achieve the same effect. The severity of withdrawal symptoms often drives continued use, making opioids particularly prone to misuse despite their genuine medical applications.

28. Match each substance with the effect it has on the body.

•          Slows down central nervous system activity: Alcohol

•          Increases alertness and heart rate: Caffeine

•          Constricts blood vessels and raises blood pressure: Nicotine

•          Impairs coordination and judgment: Alcohol

•          Can cause physical dependence within days of regular use: Nicotine
Explanation: Alcohol functions as a depressant, slowing central nervous system activity and impairing coordination and decision-making even at moderate doses. Caffeine, in contrast, is a stimulant that increases alertness and elevates heart rate temporarily. Nicotine causes blood vessel constriction that raises blood pressure over time and is notable for how quickly it can lead to physical dependence with regular use.

29. Which strategies are considered healthy approaches to managing chronic stress? (Choose 3)

•          Practicing mindfulness or meditation

•          Isolating from friends and family

•          Engaging in regular physical activity

•          Maintaining a consistent sleep schedule

•          Increasing caffeine intake throughout the day
Explanation: Mindfulness practices help regulate the body's stress response by promoting relaxation and reducing cortisol levels over time. Regular physical activity provides a healthy outlet for built-up tension while also improving mood through the release of endorphins. A consistent sleep schedule supports the body's ability to recover from daily stressors, making it a foundational component of any stress-management routine.

30. Which of the following are common physical or behavioral symptoms of chronic stress? (Choose 4)

•          Headaches

•          Improved digestion

•          Irritability

•          Fatigue

•          Increased appetite for junk food

•          Enhanced immune function
Explanation: Chronic stress commonly manifests as tension headaches and persistent fatigue as the body remains in a prolonged state of heightened alertness. Behaviorally, individuals under sustained stress often become more irritable and may turn to high-calorie comfort foods as a coping mechanism. Rather than strengthening the body, ongoing stress typically suppresses immune function and disrupts normal physiological processes.

31. Which of the following best describes the overall goal of social emotional learning (SEL)?

•          Memorizing academic content more efficiently

•          Developing skills to understand and manage emotions and relationships

•          Increasing competitiveness among peers

•          Eliminating the need for teacher guidance
Explanation: Social emotional learning centers on building the skills needed to recognize, understand, and regulate one's own emotions while also developing empathy for others. These competencies extend beyond academics, supporting individuals in navigating relationships and making responsible decisions. SEL frameworks are increasingly integrated into education and workplace training because of their impact on long-term personal and professional success.

32. Which SEL competency involves recognizing and respecting the perspectives of people from different cultural backgrounds?

•          Self-management

•          Social-awareness

•          Executive function

•          Self-awareness
Explanation: Social-awareness is the SEL competency focused on the ability to take the perspective of and empathize with individuals from diverse backgrounds and cultures. It requires stepping outside one's own frame of reference to understand social norms and the experiences of others. Building this skill is essential for fostering inclusive environments and reducing interpersonal conflict rooted in misunderstanding.

33. Which of the following is the best example of self-assessment?

•          Reviewing your own performance after a project to identify areas for improvement

•          Asking a classmate to complete an assignment for you

•          Ignoring feedback from a supervisor

•          Comparing your grades to those of your peers
Explanation: Self-assessment involves reflecting on one's own performance to honestly identify strengths and areas that need improvement. This practice requires a degree of objectivity and self-awareness that goes beyond simply seeking external validation or comparison. Regularly engaging in self-assessment helps individuals take ownership of their growth and make targeted improvements over time.

34. Recognizing your own frustration during a difficult conversation and pausing before responding is an example of which SEL competency?

•          Executive function

•          Communication and leadership

•          Self-awareness

•          Social-awareness
Explanation: Self-awareness involves recognizing one's own emotional state in the moment, such as noticing rising frustration during a tense exchange. This recognition is the first step toward regulating a response rather than reacting impulsively. Individuals who practice this competency are better able to manage their emotional reactions and maintain composure in challenging interactions.

35. Creating a detailed study schedule that breaks a semester-long project into weekly milestones is an example of which SEL competency?

•          Self-awareness

•          Executive function

•          Communication and leadership

•          Self-management
Explanation: Executive function refers to the mental processes involved in planning, organizing, and managing tasks toward a long-term goal. Breaking a large project into smaller, scheduled milestones demonstrates strong organizational and planning skills. This competency allows individuals to approach complex responsibilities methodically rather than becoming overwhelmed by their scope.

36. Using a countdown routine to calm nerves before an important job interview is an example of which SEL competency?

•          Self-management

•          Social-awareness

•          Self-awareness

•          Executive function
Explanation: Self-management is the SEL competency that involves regulating one's emotions, thoughts, and behaviors in different situations. Using a calming routine before a stressful event demonstrates a proactive strategy for managing anxiety and maintaining composure. This ability to self-regulate under pressure allows individuals to perform more effectively in high-stakes situations.

37. Mediating a disagreement between two team members so that both feel heard is an example of which SEL competency?

•          Social-awareness

•          Communication and leadership

•          Executive function

•          Self-awareness
Explanation: Communication and leadership skills involve guiding interpersonal interactions toward productive outcomes, including resolving conflict between team members. Successfully mediating a disagreement requires active listening, empathy, and the ability to help both parties feel respected. This competency is essential for maintaining team cohesion and ensuring that conflicts do not undermine collective goals.

38. Adjusting written communications to use accessible language for colleagues who are non-native speakers is an example of which SEL competency?

•          Self-management

•          Communication and leadership

•          Executive function

•          Self-awareness
Explanation: Communication and leadership encompass adapting one's communication style to ensure that all audience members can understand and engage with the message. Simplifying language for non-native speakers reflects an intentional effort to promote inclusivity and clarity in professional settings. This practice strengthens collaboration and reduces the likelihood of miscommunication within diverse teams.

39. Signing up for a tutoring session after struggling on a chemistry exam is an example of which SEL competency?

•          Executive function

•          Self-management

•          Social-awareness

•          Communication and leadership
Explanation: Self-management includes the resilience to respond constructively to setbacks rather than becoming discouraged by them. Proactively seeking tutoring after a poor exam result demonstrates initiative and a willingness to take responsibility for improving one's own performance. This kind of adaptive response transforms a setback into an opportunity for growth.

40. Teaching yourself a new data analysis tool through online tutorials to complete a work assignment is an example of which SEL competency?

•          Social-awareness

•          Self-awareness

•          Executive function

•          Communication and leadership
Explanation: Executive function involves the self-directed planning and organization needed to acquire new skills independently. Identifying a knowledge gap and taking the initiative to learn a new tool demonstrates strong goal-setting and follow-through. This competency enables individuals to adapt to new demands without requiring external direction.

41. Ensuring a company event includes options for colleagues with different accessibility needs is an example of which SEL competency?

•          Executive function

•          Self-management

•          Communication and leadership

•          Self-awareness
Explanation: Communication and leadership involve planning and organizing group activities in a way that considers the needs of every participant. Ensuring accessibility accommodations shows a commitment to inclusive leadership that values the comfort and participation of all colleagues. This kind of thoughtful planning strengthens trust and engagement within a team or organization.

42. Rescheduling a mandatory training session to avoid a religious holiday observed by several employees is an example of which SEL competency?

•          Social-awareness

•          Executive function

•          Self-management

•          Self-awareness
Explanation: Social-awareness involves recognizing and respecting the cultural and religious practices of others, even when they differ from one's own. Rescheduling an event to accommodate a religious holiday demonstrates empathy and consideration for the diverse needs of a workforce. Practicing this competency helps build a more inclusive environment where employees feel their traditions are respected.