Back to Past Exams Database
Verified Exam Record 98% A+

PHIO– Health, Fitness, and Wellness: Disease Prevention, Nutrition, and Health Promotion

Review this completed exam record, including subject, platform, academic level, completion details, and preview question.

Health Sciences ProctorU University
Subject
Health Sciences
Platform
ProctorU
Academic Level
University
Date Completed
11 Sep 2026
Preview Question

PHIO– Health, Fitness, and Wellness: Disease Prevention, Nutrition, and Health Promotion emphasizes the practical factors that influence disease prevention and long-term health. The assessment explores endocrine and other body-system functions, chronic disease risk factors, infectious-disease prevention, cardiorespiratory fitness, the consequences of inactivity, emergency response, oral and sleep health, macronutrients, whole-grain foods, healthy food choices, food allergies, and appropriate approaches to body-composition assessment. It further examines depression, eating disorders, substance misuse, stress, and the use of social-emotional skills to respond constructively to challenges in academic and workplace settings.

Exam Record Details

Question 1

Which gland regulates metabolism by producing hormones such as thyroxine?

•          Adrenal gland

•          Pituitary gland

•          Thyroid gland

•          Pancreas

Explanation: The thyroid gland produces hormones like thyroxine that regulate the body's metabolic rate.

Question 2

Match each function with the corresponding body system.

•          Produces insulin to regulate blood sugar -- Endocrine system

•          Enables movement through muscle contraction -- Muscular system

•          Provides structural support and protects organs -- Skeletal system

•          Exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide -- Respiratory system

•          Removes solid waste from the body -- Digestive system

Explanation: Each body system carries out a specialized function essential to maintaining overall health.

Question 3

A 60-year-old male who has smoked for 30 years, has a family history of colon cancer, and reports blood in his stool visits his physician. Which two health conditions are of greatest concern?  (Choose 2 answers)

•          Colorectal cancer

•          Osteoarthritis

•          Cardiovascular disease

•          Seasonal allergies

Explanation: Long-term smoking, family history, and blood in the stool are significant warning signs for colorectal cancer and cardiovascular disease.

Question 4

A traveler developed high fever, chills, and muscle aches after being bitten by mosquitoes in a malaria-endemic region. Which approach is most effective at preventing this type of infection?

•          Taking prescribed antimalarial medication and using insect repellent

•          Drinking more water

•          Avoiding dairy products

•          Wearing lightweight clothing only

Explanation: Malaria prevention relies on antimalarial prophylaxis combined with measures that reduce mosquito bites.

Question 5

What are some effects of aerobic exercise on cardiorespiratory fitness?  (Choose 3 answers)

•          Strengthens the heart muscle

•          Increases maximal oxygen uptake (VO2 max)

•          Raises resting blood pressure

•          Improves circulation and blood flow

•          Decreases lung capacity

Explanation: Aerobic exercise strengthens the heart, increases VO2 max, and improves overall circulation.

Question 6

Which of the following are common consequences of physical inactivity in our society?  (Choose 3 answers)

•          Increased risk of osteoporosis

•          Higher rates of depression and anxiety

•          Improved cardiovascular endurance

•          Weight gain and obesity

•          Decreased risk of chronic disease

Explanation: A lack of physical activity is linked to weaker bones, poorer mental health, and weight gain.

Question 7

In which situation is it appropriate to begin CPR on an adult?

•          The adult is unconscious and has no pulse

•          The adult twisted their ankle

•          The adult has a mild allergic rash

•          The adult is choking but coughing forcefully

Explanation: CPR is used when an adult is unconscious and has no pulse, indicating cardiac arrest.

Question 8

What are recommended ways to maintain proper oral hygiene?  (Choose 3 answers)

•          Using an antibacterial mouthwash

•          Chewing on ice regularly

•          Flossing between teeth daily

•          Scheduling regular dental cleanings

•          Brushing with a hard-bristled brush aggressively

Explanation: Antibacterial mouthwash, daily flossing, and regular dental cleanings all support good oral hygiene.

Question 9

Which sleep stage marks the transition from wakefulness to light sleep?

•          Stage 1

•          Stage 3

•          REM

•          Stage 2

Explanation: Stage 1 is the lightest stage of sleep and represents the transition from being awake to falling asleep.

Question 10

What is the recommended amount of sleep per day for an adult aged 18–64?

•          4–6 hours

•          7–9 hours

•          10–12 hours

•          5–6 hours

Explanation: Most adults aged 18–64 need about 7–9 hours of sleep per night for optimal health.

Question 11

Match the functions of carbohydrates, proteins, or fats with the corresponding nutrient.

•          Yields the highest number of calories per gram -- Fats

•          Broken down into glucose for quick energy -- Carbohydrates

•          Composed of chains of amino acids -- Proteins

•          Essential for hormone synthesis such as testosterone and estrogen -- Fats

•          Needed to build muscle tissue after exercise -- Proteins

Explanation: Each macronutrient plays a distinct role in energy production, hormone regulation, and tissue repair.

Question 12

What term describes the unit of energy commonly used to measure the energy content of food?

•          Calorie

•          Ohm

•          Decibel

•          Volt

Explanation: The calorie is the standard unit used to quantify the energy content of food.

Question 13

Why do dietitians often recommend whole-wheat bread instead of white bread?

•          It has a longer shelf life

•          It costs less

•          It contains more fiber and micronutrients

•          It has a milder taste

Explanation: Whole-wheat bread retains the bran and germ, providing more fiber and micronutrients than refined white bread.

Question 14

Which snack option is generally considered the healthiest choice?

•          Chocolate bar

•          Carrot sticks with hummus

•          Buttered popcorn

•          Sugary cereal

Explanation: Carrot sticks with hummus provide fiber, protein, and healthy fats, making them a nutrient-dense snack.

Question 15

Which of the following foods is suitable for a vegan diet?

•          Quinoa

•          Yogurt

•          Salmon

•          Butter

Explanation: Quinoa is a plant-based grain and fits within a vegan diet, unlike animal-derived products.

Question 16

Which of the following is a possible sign of an anaphylactic food allergy reaction?

•          Mild itching only

•          Tightness in the chest and difficulty breathing

•          Slight bloating

•          Occasional burping

Explanation: Chest tightness and breathing difficulty signal a severe, potentially life-threatening allergic reaction.

Question 17

What health benefit is most associated with maintaining a healthy BMI?

•          Increased risk of joint strain

•          Lower risk of cardiovascular disease

•          Reduced bone density

•          Higher resting heart rate

Explanation: A healthy BMI is associated with reduced strain on the heart and blood vessels, lowering cardiovascular risk.

Question 18

A competitive powerlifter has a BMI of 31, categorized as obese, due to a high proportion of muscle mass. What is the most appropriate response?

•          Immediately start a calorie-restricted diet

•          Reduce strength training to lower muscle mass

•          Evaluate body composition instead of relying solely on BMI

•          Diagnose the athlete with obesity-related disease

Explanation: BMI does not account for muscle mass, so body composition assessment is more appropriate for muscular individuals.

Question 19

Which food should be rinsed under running water before consumption to reduce bacteria?

•          Leafy greens

•          Raw pork

•          Ground turkey

•          Raw shrimp

Explanation: Leafy greens should be rinsed before eating, while raw meats should not be washed to avoid spreading bacteria.

Question 20

At which of the following times is handwashing most critical to prevent the spread of germs?

•          Only in the morning

•          Before preparing or eating food

•          Only after showering

•          Once a week

Explanation: Washing hands before preparing or eating food is one of the most effective ways to prevent the spread of germs.

Question 21

Which of the following are signs of depression?  (Choose 4 answers)

•          Chronic fatigue

•          Increased motivation

•          Withdrawing from social activities

•          Changes in appetite or weight

•          Heightened energy levels

•          Feelings of hopelessness

Explanation: Depression commonly presents with fatigue, social withdrawal, appetite changes, and feelings of hopelessness.

Question 22

Which disorder involves consuming unusually large amounts of food in a short period without compensatory purging behaviors?

•          Bulimia nervosa

•          Binge eating disorder

•          Anorexia nervosa

•          Orthorexia

Explanation: Binge eating disorder involves recurrent episodes of overeating without the purging seen in bulimia.

Question 23

Which scenario best describes sexual harassment in an academic setting?

•          A professor repeatedly asks a student on dates after being told no

•          Assigning group projects randomly

•          Grading all essays using the same rubric

•          Requiring attendance at lectures

Explanation: Persisting with romantic advances after being refused constitutes sexual harassment.

Question 24

Which type of abuse occurs when a partner constantly monitors the other's phone, location, and social contacts to control their behavior?

•          Financial

•          Psychological/controlling

•          Physical

•          Sexual

Explanation: Constant monitoring and control over a partner's activities is a form of psychological abuse.

Question 25

According to the Kübler-Ross model, which stages might a person diagnosed with a terminal illness move through?  (Choose 5 answers)

•          Excitement

•          Denial

•          Anger

•          Bargaining

•          Depression

•          Acceptance

•          Confidence

Explanation: Kübler-Ross's model identifies denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance as the five stages of grief.

Question 26

What common traits do people with high self-esteem most often possess?  (Choose 4 answers)

•          Trust their own judgment

•          Handle criticism without being devastated

•          Pursue new challenges

•          Constantly seek others' approval

•          Maintain healthy relationships

•          Avoid setting goals

Explanation: High self-esteem is associated with trusting one's judgment, handling criticism well, embracing challenges, and healthy relationships.

Question 27

Which characteristics of prescription opioids contribute to their potential for abuse?  (Choose 4 answers)

•          They relieve pain and produce feelings of euphoria.

•          They are difficult to obtain through legitimate prescriptions.

•          They can lead to physical dependence with regular use.

•          Tolerance develops, requiring higher doses over time.

•          They have no withdrawal symptoms.

•          Withdrawal symptoms can be severe, encouraging continued use.

Explanation: Opioids are prone to abuse due to their pain-relieving euphoria, potential for dependence, tolerance buildup, and severe withdrawal.

Question 28

Match each effect on the body with the drug type that causes it.

•          Slows down central nervous system activity -- Depressants

•          Increases alertness and heart rate -- Stimulants

•          Can cause slowed breathing and sedation -- Depressants

•          Commonly includes caffeine and amphetamines -- Stimulants

•          May cause dependence and impaired judgment -- Depressants

Explanation: Stimulants and depressants exert opposite effects on the central nervous system, each with distinct risks.

Question 29

What are some appropriate ways to manage stress?  (Choose 3 answers)

•          Engage in regular physical activity

•          Increase caffeine intake

•          Practice mindfulness or meditation

•          Withdraw from support systems

•          Maintain a balanced diet

Explanation: Physical activity, mindfulness, and balanced nutrition are all effective, healthy ways to manage stress.

Question 30

Which of the following behaviors are common symptoms of stress?  (Choose 4 answers)

•          Rapid heartbeat

•          Improved digestion

•          Trouble sleeping

•          Increased irritability

•          Enhanced focus

•          Frequent headaches

Explanation: Stress commonly causes physical symptoms like rapid heartbeat, sleep trouble, headaches, and irritability.

Question 31

Which best describes a primary goal of social emotional learning?

•          Improving athletic performance

•          Building skills for healthy relationships and decision-making

•          Increasing test-taking speed

•          Memorizing vocabulary lists

Explanation: Social-emotional learning focuses on developing skills for self-management, relationships, and responsible decision-making.

Question 32

Which SEL competency involves recognizing social norms and showing empathy toward people with different life experiences?

•          Social-awareness

•          Self-management

•          Executive function

•          Self-awareness

Explanation: Social-awareness involves recognizing social norms and empathizing with people whose experiences differ from one's own.

Question 33

Which of the following best demonstrates self-awareness?

•          Acknowledging that you tend to procrastinate and adjusting your study habits accordingly

•          Organizing a fundraiser for a local charity

•          Helping a classmate understand course material

•          Setting a timer to stay on schedule

Explanation: Recognizing a personal tendency and adjusting behavior in response demonstrates self-awareness.

Question 34

Interpreting a manager's constructive criticism as valuable insight rather than a personal attack demonstrates which SEL competency?

•          Social-awareness

•          Executive function

•          Self-awareness

•          Communication and leadership

Explanation: Objectively processing feedback as insight rather than criticism reflects self-awareness.

Question 35

Breaking a large research paper into weekly milestones to meet a final deadline is an example of which SEL competency?

•          Self-awareness

•          Self-management

•          Social-awareness

•          Communication and leadership

Explanation: Planning and organizing tasks to reach a deadline demonstrates self-management.

Question 36

Using progressive muscle relaxation techniques to manage nervousness before an exam is an example of which SEL competency?

•          Self-management

•          Self-awareness

•          Social-awareness

•          Executive function

Explanation: Using relaxation techniques to regulate emotional responses is an example of self-management.

Question 37

Facilitating a discussion between two classmates who disagree on a group project approach until they reach a shared solution is an example of which SEL competency?

•          Self-awareness

•          Social-awareness

•          Communication and leadership

•          Self-management

Explanation: Facilitating a resolution between disagreeing peers demonstrates communication and leadership.

Question 38

Adjusting your communication style to be more inclusive of a colleague who is deaf by learning basic sign language greetings is an example of which SEL competency?

•          Self-management

•          Communication and leadership

•          Self-awareness

•          Social-awareness

Explanation: Adapting communication to be more inclusive reflects communication and leadership.

Question 39

After failing a certification exam, reviewing the score report and creating a new study plan before the retake is an example of which SEL competency?

•          Communication and leadership

•          Self-awareness

•          Self-management

•          Executive function

Explanation: Taking accountability and planning corrective action after a setback demonstrates self-management.

Question 40

Recognizing that you are unfamiliar with data visualization tools and watching free online tutorials before a course begins is an example of which SEL competency?

•          Communication and leadership

•          Self-awareness

•          Executive function

•          Social-awareness

Explanation: Recognizing a knowledge gap and proactively seeking to close it reflects self-awareness.

Question 41

Organizing an office potluck and confirming ahead of time which dishes are nut-free for coworkers with allergies is an example of which SEL competency?

•          Communication and leadership

•          Self-management

•          Self-awareness

•          Executive function

Explanation: Planning an event with the safety and needs of others in mind reflects communication and leadership.

Question 42

Adjusting a training schedule to accommodate an employee who needs prayer breaks during the workday is an example of which SEL competency?

•          Social-awareness

•          Self-management

•          Executive function

•          Self-awareness

Explanation: Accommodating an employee's religious practices reflects social-awareness.

PDF Preview

Generate, preview, and download this exam record.

Waiting Download PDF
Size
Pages
Created
Page /
100%
Generating PDF…
Expert Help Available

Ace Your Online Exams

Connect with trusted academic professionals for reliable test support and secure results. Order now to get started.