PHIO– Health, Fitness, and Wellness: Disease Prevention, Nutrition, and Health Promotion
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PHIO– Health, Fitness, and Wellness: Disease Prevention, Nutrition, and Health Promotion emphasizes the practical factors that influence disease prevention and long-term health. The assessment explores endocrine and other body-system functions, chronic disease risk factors, infectious-disease prevention, cardiorespiratory fitness, the consequences of inactivity, emergency response, oral and sleep health, macronutrients, whole-grain foods, healthy food choices, food allergies, and appropriate approaches to body-composition assessment. It further examines depression, eating disorders, substance misuse, stress, and the use of social-emotional skills to respond constructively to challenges in academic and workplace settings.
Exam Record Details
Question 1
Which gland regulates metabolism by producing hormones such as thyroxine?
• Adrenal gland
• Pituitary gland
• Thyroid gland
• Pancreas
Explanation: The thyroid gland produces hormones like thyroxine that regulate the body's metabolic rate.
Question 2
Match each function with the corresponding body system.
• Produces insulin to regulate blood sugar -- Endocrine system
• Enables movement through muscle contraction -- Muscular system
• Provides structural support and protects organs -- Skeletal system
• Exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide -- Respiratory system
• Removes solid waste from the body -- Digestive system
Explanation: Each body system carries out a specialized function essential to maintaining overall health.
Question 3
A 60-year-old male who has smoked for 30 years, has a family history of colon cancer, and reports blood in his stool visits his physician. Which two health conditions are of greatest concern? (Choose 2 answers)
• Colorectal cancer
• Osteoarthritis
• Cardiovascular disease
• Seasonal allergies
Explanation: Long-term smoking, family history, and blood in the stool are significant warning signs for colorectal cancer and cardiovascular disease.
Question 4
A traveler developed high fever, chills, and muscle aches after being bitten by mosquitoes in a malaria-endemic region. Which approach is most effective at preventing this type of infection?
• Taking prescribed antimalarial medication and using insect repellent
• Drinking more water
• Avoiding dairy products
• Wearing lightweight clothing only
Explanation: Malaria prevention relies on antimalarial prophylaxis combined with measures that reduce mosquito bites.
Question 5
What are some effects of aerobic exercise on cardiorespiratory fitness? (Choose 3 answers)
• Strengthens the heart muscle
• Increases maximal oxygen uptake (VO2 max)
• Raises resting blood pressure
• Improves circulation and blood flow
• Decreases lung capacity
Explanation: Aerobic exercise strengthens the heart, increases VO2 max, and improves overall circulation.
Question 6
Which of the following are common consequences of physical inactivity in our society? (Choose 3 answers)
• Increased risk of osteoporosis
• Higher rates of depression and anxiety
• Improved cardiovascular endurance
• Weight gain and obesity
• Decreased risk of chronic disease
Explanation: A lack of physical activity is linked to weaker bones, poorer mental health, and weight gain.
Question 7
In which situation is it appropriate to begin CPR on an adult?
• The adult is unconscious and has no pulse
• The adult twisted their ankle
• The adult has a mild allergic rash
• The adult is choking but coughing forcefully
Explanation: CPR is used when an adult is unconscious and has no pulse, indicating cardiac arrest.
Question 8
What are recommended ways to maintain proper oral hygiene? (Choose 3 answers)
• Using an antibacterial mouthwash
• Chewing on ice regularly
• Flossing between teeth daily
• Scheduling regular dental cleanings
• Brushing with a hard-bristled brush aggressively
Explanation: Antibacterial mouthwash, daily flossing, and regular dental cleanings all support good oral hygiene.
Question 9
Which sleep stage marks the transition from wakefulness to light sleep?
• Stage 1
• Stage 3
• REM
• Stage 2
Explanation: Stage 1 is the lightest stage of sleep and represents the transition from being awake to falling asleep.
Question 10
What is the recommended amount of sleep per day for an adult aged 18–64?
• 4–6 hours
• 7–9 hours
• 10–12 hours
• 5–6 hours
Explanation: Most adults aged 18–64 need about 7–9 hours of sleep per night for optimal health.
Question 11
Match the functions of carbohydrates, proteins, or fats with the corresponding nutrient.
• Yields the highest number of calories per gram -- Fats
• Broken down into glucose for quick energy -- Carbohydrates
• Composed of chains of amino acids -- Proteins
• Essential for hormone synthesis such as testosterone and estrogen -- Fats
• Needed to build muscle tissue after exercise -- Proteins
Explanation: Each macronutrient plays a distinct role in energy production, hormone regulation, and tissue repair.
Question 12
What term describes the unit of energy commonly used to measure the energy content of food?
• Calorie
• Ohm
• Decibel
• Volt
Explanation: The calorie is the standard unit used to quantify the energy content of food.
Question 13
Why do dietitians often recommend whole-wheat bread instead of white bread?
• It has a longer shelf life
• It costs less
• It contains more fiber and micronutrients
• It has a milder taste
Explanation: Whole-wheat bread retains the bran and germ, providing more fiber and micronutrients than refined white bread.
Question 14
Which snack option is generally considered the healthiest choice?
• Chocolate bar
• Carrot sticks with hummus
• Buttered popcorn
• Sugary cereal
Explanation: Carrot sticks with hummus provide fiber, protein, and healthy fats, making them a nutrient-dense snack.
Question 15
Which of the following foods is suitable for a vegan diet?
• Quinoa
• Yogurt
• Salmon
• Butter
Explanation: Quinoa is a plant-based grain and fits within a vegan diet, unlike animal-derived products.
Question 16
Which of the following is a possible sign of an anaphylactic food allergy reaction?
• Mild itching only
• Tightness in the chest and difficulty breathing
• Slight bloating
• Occasional burping
Explanation: Chest tightness and breathing difficulty signal a severe, potentially life-threatening allergic reaction.
Question 17
What health benefit is most associated with maintaining a healthy BMI?
• Increased risk of joint strain
• Lower risk of cardiovascular disease
• Reduced bone density
• Higher resting heart rate
Explanation: A healthy BMI is associated with reduced strain on the heart and blood vessels, lowering cardiovascular risk.
Question 18
A competitive powerlifter has a BMI of 31, categorized as obese, due to a high proportion of muscle mass. What is the most appropriate response?
• Immediately start a calorie-restricted diet
• Reduce strength training to lower muscle mass
• Evaluate body composition instead of relying solely on BMI
• Diagnose the athlete with obesity-related disease
Explanation: BMI does not account for muscle mass, so body composition assessment is more appropriate for muscular individuals.
Question 19
Which food should be rinsed under running water before consumption to reduce bacteria?
• Leafy greens
• Raw pork
• Ground turkey
• Raw shrimp
Explanation: Leafy greens should be rinsed before eating, while raw meats should not be washed to avoid spreading bacteria.
Question 20
At which of the following times is handwashing most critical to prevent the spread of germs?
• Only in the morning
• Before preparing or eating food
• Only after showering
• Once a week
Explanation: Washing hands before preparing or eating food is one of the most effective ways to prevent the spread of germs.
Question 21
Which of the following are signs of depression? (Choose 4 answers)
• Chronic fatigue
• Increased motivation
• Withdrawing from social activities
• Changes in appetite or weight
• Heightened energy levels
• Feelings of hopelessness
Explanation: Depression commonly presents with fatigue, social withdrawal, appetite changes, and feelings of hopelessness.
Question 22
Which disorder involves consuming unusually large amounts of food in a short period without compensatory purging behaviors?
• Bulimia nervosa
• Binge eating disorder
• Anorexia nervosa
• Orthorexia
Explanation: Binge eating disorder involves recurrent episodes of overeating without the purging seen in bulimia.
Question 23
Which scenario best describes sexual harassment in an academic setting?
• A professor repeatedly asks a student on dates after being told no
• Assigning group projects randomly
• Grading all essays using the same rubric
• Requiring attendance at lectures
Explanation: Persisting with romantic advances after being refused constitutes sexual harassment.
Question 24
Which type of abuse occurs when a partner constantly monitors the other's phone, location, and social contacts to control their behavior?
• Financial
• Psychological/controlling
• Physical
• Sexual
Explanation: Constant monitoring and control over a partner's activities is a form of psychological abuse.
Question 25
According to the Kübler-Ross model, which stages might a person diagnosed with a terminal illness move through? (Choose 5 answers)
• Excitement
• Denial
• Anger
• Bargaining
• Depression
• Acceptance
• Confidence
Explanation: Kübler-Ross's model identifies denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance as the five stages of grief.
Question 26
What common traits do people with high self-esteem most often possess? (Choose 4 answers)
• Trust their own judgment
• Handle criticism without being devastated
• Pursue new challenges
• Constantly seek others' approval
• Maintain healthy relationships
• Avoid setting goals
Explanation: High self-esteem is associated with trusting one's judgment, handling criticism well, embracing challenges, and healthy relationships.
Question 27
Which characteristics of prescription opioids contribute to their potential for abuse? (Choose 4 answers)
• They relieve pain and produce feelings of euphoria.
• They are difficult to obtain through legitimate prescriptions.
• They can lead to physical dependence with regular use.
• Tolerance develops, requiring higher doses over time.
• They have no withdrawal symptoms.
• Withdrawal symptoms can be severe, encouraging continued use.
Explanation: Opioids are prone to abuse due to their pain-relieving euphoria, potential for dependence, tolerance buildup, and severe withdrawal.
Question 28
Match each effect on the body with the drug type that causes it.
• Slows down central nervous system activity -- Depressants
• Increases alertness and heart rate -- Stimulants
• Can cause slowed breathing and sedation -- Depressants
• Commonly includes caffeine and amphetamines -- Stimulants
• May cause dependence and impaired judgment -- Depressants
Explanation: Stimulants and depressants exert opposite effects on the central nervous system, each with distinct risks.
Question 29
What are some appropriate ways to manage stress? (Choose 3 answers)
• Engage in regular physical activity
• Increase caffeine intake
• Practice mindfulness or meditation
• Withdraw from support systems
• Maintain a balanced diet
Explanation: Physical activity, mindfulness, and balanced nutrition are all effective, healthy ways to manage stress.
Question 30
Which of the following behaviors are common symptoms of stress? (Choose 4 answers)
• Rapid heartbeat
• Improved digestion
• Trouble sleeping
• Increased irritability
• Enhanced focus
• Frequent headaches
Explanation: Stress commonly causes physical symptoms like rapid heartbeat, sleep trouble, headaches, and irritability.
Question 31
Which best describes a primary goal of social emotional learning?
• Improving athletic performance
• Building skills for healthy relationships and decision-making
• Increasing test-taking speed
• Memorizing vocabulary lists
Explanation: Social-emotional learning focuses on developing skills for self-management, relationships, and responsible decision-making.
Question 32
Which SEL competency involves recognizing social norms and showing empathy toward people with different life experiences?
• Social-awareness
• Self-management
• Executive function
• Self-awareness
Explanation: Social-awareness involves recognizing social norms and empathizing with people whose experiences differ from one's own.
Question 33
Which of the following best demonstrates self-awareness?
• Acknowledging that you tend to procrastinate and adjusting your study habits accordingly
• Organizing a fundraiser for a local charity
• Helping a classmate understand course material
• Setting a timer to stay on schedule
Explanation: Recognizing a personal tendency and adjusting behavior in response demonstrates self-awareness.
Question 34
Interpreting a manager's constructive criticism as valuable insight rather than a personal attack demonstrates which SEL competency?
• Social-awareness
• Executive function
• Self-awareness
• Communication and leadership
Explanation: Objectively processing feedback as insight rather than criticism reflects self-awareness.
Question 35
Breaking a large research paper into weekly milestones to meet a final deadline is an example of which SEL competency?
• Self-awareness
• Self-management
• Social-awareness
• Communication and leadership
Explanation: Planning and organizing tasks to reach a deadline demonstrates self-management.
Question 36
Using progressive muscle relaxation techniques to manage nervousness before an exam is an example of which SEL competency?
• Self-management
• Self-awareness
• Social-awareness
• Executive function
Explanation: Using relaxation techniques to regulate emotional responses is an example of self-management.
Question 37
Facilitating a discussion between two classmates who disagree on a group project approach until they reach a shared solution is an example of which SEL competency?
• Self-awareness
• Social-awareness
• Communication and leadership
• Self-management
Explanation: Facilitating a resolution between disagreeing peers demonstrates communication and leadership.
Question 38
Adjusting your communication style to be more inclusive of a colleague who is deaf by learning basic sign language greetings is an example of which SEL competency?
• Self-management
• Communication and leadership
• Self-awareness
• Social-awareness
Explanation: Adapting communication to be more inclusive reflects communication and leadership.
Question 39
After failing a certification exam, reviewing the score report and creating a new study plan before the retake is an example of which SEL competency?
• Communication and leadership
• Self-awareness
• Self-management
• Executive function
Explanation: Taking accountability and planning corrective action after a setback demonstrates self-management.
Question 40
Recognizing that you are unfamiliar with data visualization tools and watching free online tutorials before a course begins is an example of which SEL competency?
• Communication and leadership
• Self-awareness
• Executive function
• Social-awareness
Explanation: Recognizing a knowledge gap and proactively seeking to close it reflects self-awareness.
Question 41
Organizing an office potluck and confirming ahead of time which dishes are nut-free for coworkers with allergies is an example of which SEL competency?
• Communication and leadership
• Self-management
• Self-awareness
• Executive function
Explanation: Planning an event with the safety and needs of others in mind reflects communication and leadership.
Question 42
Adjusting a training schedule to accommodate an employee who needs prayer breaks during the workday is an example of which SEL competency?
• Social-awareness
• Self-management
• Executive function
• Self-awareness
Explanation: Accommodating an employee's religious practices reflects social-awareness.
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