PHIO– Health, Fitness, and Wellness: Lifespan Wellness, Nutrition, and Emotional Health
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PHIO– Health, Fitness, and Wellness: Lifespan Wellness, Nutrition, and Emotional Health examines health as a continuing process influenced by physical activity, nutrition, preventive behaviors, emotional well-being, and individual circumstances across the lifespan. The assessment highlights immune and body-system functions, bone health and osteoporosis risk, vaccination and infection prevention, aerobic training adaptations, physical inactivity, age-specific sleep needs, nutrient functions, healthy eating patterns, food allergies, body-composition concepts, depression, eating disorders, grief, self-esteem, and substance-related risks.
Exam Record Details
Question 1
Which organ produces white blood cells and plays a central role in fighting infection?
• Bone marrow
• Kidney
• Liver
• Stomach
Explanation: Bone marrow produces white blood cells, which are essential for the body's immune response against infection.
Question 2
Match each function with the corresponding body system.
• Regulates hormone levels through glands -- Endocrine system
• Transmits electrical signals for reflexes -- Nervous system
• Pumps blood throughout the body -- Circulatory system
• Protects internal organs from injury -- Skeletal system
• Absorbs nutrients from digested food -- Digestive system
Explanation: Each body system performs a specialized role that supports overall physiological function.
Question 3
A 45-year-old woman with a family history of osteoporosis, who rarely exercises and has a low calcium intake, undergoes a bone density scan showing low bone mass. Which two health conditions are of greatest concern? (Choose 2 answers)
• Osteoporosis
• Asthma
• Increased fracture risk
• Seasonal allergies
Explanation: Low bone density combined with family history and inactivity greatly raises the risk of osteoporosis and related fractures.
Question 4
A restaurant worker developed a sore throat, fever, and body aches during flu season and was later diagnosed with influenza. Which approach most effectively prevents this type of illness?
• Getting an annual flu vaccination
• Taking daily vitamin C supplements
• Avoiding cold weather
• Gargling salt water daily
Explanation: Annual flu vaccination is the most effective way to prevent seasonal influenza infection.
Question 5
What are some effects of aerobic exercise on cardiorespiratory fitness? (Choose 3 answers)
• Lowers resting heart rate over time
• Increases the heart's stroke volume
• Raises LDL cholesterol
• Improves the efficiency of oxygen use by muscles
• Decreases lung elasticity
Explanation: Aerobic training lowers resting heart rate, increases stroke volume, and improves how efficiently muscles use oxygen.
Question 6
Which of the following are common consequences of physical inactivity in our society? (Choose 3 answers)
• Increased risk of high blood pressure
• Reduced muscle strength and flexibility
• Improved sleep quality
• Greater likelihood of developing metabolic syndrome
• Decreased risk of falls
Explanation: Inactivity raises blood pressure, weakens muscles, and increases the risk of metabolic syndrome.
Question 7
CPR should be started on an adult when which of the following occurs?
• The person collapses and shows no signs of breathing
• The person has a minor cut
• The person feels dizzy but is alert
• The person has a mild fever
Explanation: CPR is initiated when a person collapses and shows no signs of normal breathing, indicating possible cardiac arrest.
Question 8
What are recommended ways to maintain proper oral hygiene? (Choose 3 answers)
• Brushing for two minutes twice a day
• Skipping dental visits unless in pain
• Using dental floss or interdental brushes
• Limiting acidic and sugary drinks
• Sharing a toothbrush with family members
Explanation: Brushing twice daily, flossing, and limiting sugary or acidic drinks all support good oral health.
Question 9
Which sleep stage is characterized by rapid, low-amplitude brain waves and is when most dreaming occurs?
• Stage 1
• Stage 2
• Stage 3
• REM sleep
Explanation: REM sleep involves rapid, low-amplitude brain activity and is the stage most associated with vivid dreams.
Question 10
What is the recommended amount of sleep per day for a toddler aged 1–2 years?
• 7–9 hours
• 9–10 hours
• 11–14 hours
• 15–17 hours
Explanation: Toddlers aged 1–2 years typically need about 11–14 hours of sleep per day for healthy development.
Question 11
Match the functions of carbohydrates, proteins, or fats with the corresponding nutrient.
• Broken down into fatty acids and glycerol -- Fats
• Serves as the body's quickest source of energy during intense exercise -- Carbohydrates
• Required for the growth and repair of muscle tissue -- Proteins
• Insulates the body and cushions organs -- Fats
• Made up of building blocks called amino acids -- Proteins
Explanation: Fats, carbohydrates, and proteins each serve distinct roles in energy supply, structure, and tissue repair.
Question 12
On a nutrition facts label, food energy is typically expressed in which unit?
• Watt
• Calorie (kilocalorie)
• Pascal
• Hertz
Explanation: Food energy on nutrition labels is expressed in calories, technically kilocalories.
Question 13
Why might a dietitian suggest choosing oatmeal over a sugary breakfast cereal?
• It's cheaper to buy
• It has a longer shelf life
• It provides more fiber and fewer added sugars
• It cooks faster
Explanation: Oatmeal is higher in fiber and typically much lower in added sugar than most sugary cereals.
Question 14
Which of the following snacks would a nutritionist most likely recommend?
• A handful of almonds and an apple
• A bag of chips
• A glazed donut
• A can of soda
Explanation: Almonds and an apple provide healthy fats, protein, and fiber, making them a nutrient-dense snack choice.
Question 15
Which of the following foods can be part of a vegan diet?
• Tofu
• Milk
• Shrimp
• Eggs
Explanation: Tofu is a plant-based protein made from soybeans and is a staple of vegan diets.
Question 16
Which symptom would raise the most concern for a severe food allergy requiring emergency treatment?
• Mild stomach discomfort
• Swelling of the lips and throat
• Slight fatigue
• Occasional sneezing
Explanation: Swelling of the lips and throat can indicate anaphylaxis, a medical emergency requiring immediate treatment.
Question 17
Which of the following is a likely benefit of maintaining a healthy BMI?
• Increased risk of insulin resistance
• Reduced risk of type 2 diabetes
• Higher cholesterol levels
• Reduced bone strength
Explanation: A healthy BMI is linked to improved insulin sensitivity and a lower risk of developing type 2 diabetes.
Question 18
A professional rugby player has a BMI of 32, technically classified as obese, but has a low body fat percentage. What is the most appropriate response?
• Prescribe a rapid weight-loss program
• Advise the athlete to stop strength training
• Recognize BMI limitations for muscular individuals and use body composition testing instead
• Diagnose metabolic syndrome based on BMI alone
Explanation: BMI alone can misclassify muscular athletes, so body composition testing gives a more accurate picture of health.
Question 19
Which food item should be washed before eating to help prevent bacterial illness?
• Tomatoes
• Raw ground beef
• Raw chicken breast
• Raw salmon
Explanation: Produce such as tomatoes should be washed, while raw meats should not be rinsed to avoid spreading bacteria.
Question 20
Handwashing is especially important at which of the following times?
• Only before sleeping
• After coughing or sneezing
• Only once daily
• Only after outdoor activities
Explanation: Washing hands after coughing or sneezing helps prevent the spread of respiratory illnesses.
Question 21
Which of the following are signs of depression? (Choose 4 answers)
• Persistent low mood
• Increased sociability
• Sleep disturbances
• Difficulty making decisions
• Boosted self-confidence
• Loss of energy
Explanation: Depression commonly involves persistent low mood, sleep problems, indecisiveness, and low energy.
Question 22
Which eating disorder involves an obsessive focus on eating only foods perceived as healthy or 'pure,' often leading to nutritional deficiencies?
• Bulimia nervosa
• Binge eating disorder
• Anorexia nervosa
• Orthorexia nervosa
Explanation: Orthorexia nervosa involves an unhealthy obsession with eating only foods considered pure or healthy.
Question 23
Which of the following is an example of sexual harassment?
• Sending explicit messages to a coworker after being asked to stop
• Conducting a performance review on schedule
• Assigning tasks based on job title
• Sending a team-wide meeting invite
Explanation: Continuing to send unwanted explicit messages after being asked to stop constitutes sexual harassment.
Question 24
Which type of abuse involves a partner threatening to harm themselves or the other person to maintain control in the relationship?
• Financial
• Psychological/emotional
• Physical
• Environmental
Explanation: Threats used to manipulate and control a partner's behavior are a form of psychological abuse.
Question 25
A person coping with the terminal diagnosis of a loved one may go through which of the following stages, per Kübler-Ross? (Choose 5 answers)
• Relief
• Denial
• Anger
• Bargaining
• Depression
• Acceptance
• Panic
Explanation: The Kübler-Ross model identifies denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance as the stages of grief.
Question 26
What common traits do people with high self-esteem most often possess? (Choose 4 answers)
• Set achievable personal goals
• Recover quickly from disappointment
• Speak up for their own needs
• Seek constant validation from others
• Maintain a positive self-image
• Avoid all forms of feedback
Explanation: People with high self-esteem set achievable goals, recover from setbacks, assert their needs, and maintain a positive self-image.
Question 27
Which characteristics of heroin contribute to its high potential for abuse? (Choose 4 answers)
• It produces an intense, rapid feeling of euphoria.
• It has minimal withdrawal effects.
• It can be injected, smoked, or snorted.
• Tolerance builds quickly, requiring increased doses.
• It is not physically addictive.
• Withdrawal symptoms are severe and drive continued use.
Explanation: Heroin is highly addictive due to its rapid euphoric effect, multiple routes of use, quick tolerance, and severe withdrawal.
Question 28
Match each effect on the body with the drug type that causes it.
• Constricts blood vessels and raises blood pressure -- Nicotine
• Impairs judgment and slows reaction time -- Alcohol
• Highly addictive substance found in cigarettes -- Nicotine
• Linked to fetal alcohol syndrome when used during pregnancy -- Alcohol
• Increases risk of lung cancer with long-term use -- Nicotine
Explanation: Nicotine and alcohol each produce distinct, well-documented physiological effects on the body.
Question 29
What are some appropriate ways to manage stress? (Choose 3 answers)
• Practice yoga or stretching
• Increase alcohol consumption
• Talk to a trusted friend or counselor
• Isolate from support networks
• Keep a consistent daily routine
Explanation: Yoga, talking with trusted people, and a consistent routine are healthy strategies for managing stress.
Question 30
Which of the following behaviors are common symptoms of stress? (Choose 4 answers)
• Fatigue
• Increased appetite for healthy food
• Upset stomach
• Racing thoughts
• Improved memory
• Restlessness
Explanation: Common stress symptoms include fatigue, digestive upset, racing thoughts, and restlessness.
Question 31
A core component of social emotional learning includes which of the following?
• Increasing physical endurance
• Developing self-awareness and interpersonal skills
• Learning advanced mathematics
• Improving typing speed
Explanation: Social emotional learning focuses on developing self-awareness and the interpersonal skills needed for healthy relationships.
Question 32
Which SEL competency reflects the ability to understand and respect viewpoints different from your own?
• Social-awareness
• Self-management
• Self-awareness
• Executive function
Explanation: Social-awareness involves understanding and respecting perspectives that differ from one's own.
Question 33
Which situation best illustrates self-awareness?
• Recognizing you become defensive during disagreements and working to stay calm
• Leading a team project to completion
• Helping a peer understand a difficult concept
• Making a to-do list for the week
Explanation: Recognizing a personal emotional pattern and working to manage it demonstrates self-awareness.
Question 34
Viewing a coach's critical feedback as an opportunity to improve your performance rather than a personal insult is an example of which SEL competency?
• Communication and leadership
• Social-awareness
• Self-awareness
• Self-management
Explanation: Interpreting feedback constructively rather than personally reflects self-awareness.
Question 35
Setting a goal to finish a certification course in three months while balancing full-time work is an example of which SEL competency?
• Self-awareness
• Self-management
• Communication and leadership
• Social-awareness
Explanation: Balancing competing priorities to reach a goal demonstrates self-management.
Question 36
Practicing visualization techniques to calm your nerves before a big presentation is an example of which SEL competency?
• Self-management
• Social-awareness
• Self-awareness
• Communication and leadership
Explanation: Using visualization to regulate anxiety before a stressful event demonstrates self-management.
Question 37
Stepping in to help two friends resolve an argument by finding a solution that satisfies both is an example of which SEL competency?
• Self-awareness
• Self-management
• Communication and leadership
• Social-awareness
Explanation: Mediating a conflict to reach a mutually satisfying resolution reflects communication and leadership.
Question 38
Making an effort to learn a few phrases in a new coworker's native language to help them feel welcome is an example of which SEL competency?
• Self-management
• Communication and leadership
• Self-awareness
• Social-awareness
Explanation: Making an inclusive effort to connect with a coworker demonstrates communication and leadership.
Question 39
After receiving disappointing feedback on a job interview, researching common interview questions and practicing with a mentor before the next one is an example of which SEL competency?
• Communication and leadership
• Self-awareness
• Self-management
• Executive function
Explanation: Taking corrective action after a setback to improve future performance demonstrates self-management.
Question 40
Recognizing that you feel anxious speaking in large groups and signing up for a public speaking course to build confidence is an example of which SEL competency?
• Communication and leadership
• Self-awareness
• Social-awareness
• Self-management
Explanation: Recognizing a personal anxiety and proactively seeking to build the related skill reflects self-awareness.
Question 41
Planning a team lunch and making sure there are options for coworkers who keep kosher is an example of which SEL competency?
• Communication and leadership
• Self-management
• Self-awareness
• Executive function
Explanation: Planning an inclusive event that accounts for coworkers' needs reflects communication and leadership.
Question 42
Adjusting the office dress code policy to accommodate employees' religious head coverings is an example of which SEL competency?
• Social-awareness
• Self-management
• Self-awareness
• Executive function
Explanation: Accommodating employees' religious practices in policy reflects social-awareness.
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