PHIO: Health, Fitness & Wellness

Question 1

Which structure helps protect the body against specific foreign agents?

• Heart
• Adrenal gland
• Kidney
• Thymus gland

Explanation: The thymus gland plays a vital role in the immune system by functioning as the site for T-cell maturation, which helps the body identify and defend against specific foreign pathogens.

Question 2

Match each function with the corresponding body system.

• Controls blood pressure – Central nervous system
• Regulates muscle coordination – Central nervous system
• Regulates body temperature – Both integumentary and central nervous system
• Forms a protective barrier – Integumentary system
• Regulates thirst and hunger – Central nervous system

Explanation: Each physiological response or structure is matched to the primary organ system responsible for maintaining homeostasis and regulating that specific function (e.g., the skin forms the outer barrier, while the brain controls regulation centers).

Question 3

A postmenopausal female with a body mass index of 33 smokes approximately two packs of cigarettes per day. The individual has no children and exercises rarely. During a routine physical exam, a physician found a small lump near the left breast. Which two health conditions are of concern? (Choose 2 answers)

• Rheumatic fever
• Diabetes
• Cancer
• Cardiovascular disease

Explanation: Smoking, a high BMI, lack of physical activity, and a detected breast lump significantly elevate the risk factors for both cancer and cardiovascular disease.

Question 4

A sanitation worker was experiencing headaches, fever, fatigue, stiff joints, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. After going to the doctor, the individual was diagnosed with hepatitis A. Which approach prevents this type of infection?

• Getting a vaccination
• Drinking sufficient water
• Getting adequate sleep
• Taking vitamins and mineral supplements

Explanation: Hepatitis A is a viral infection that spreads primarily through contaminated food or water, and a vaccine is available as a specific preventive measure against contracting the virus.

Question 5

What are some effects of aerobic exercise on cardiorespiratory fitness? (Choose 3 answers)

• Increases amount of oxygen inhaled
• Increases number of capillaries in trained skeletal muscles
• Decreases mineral retention
• Decreases risk of conduction disorders
• Enables more blood to be pumped with each stroke of the heart
• Increases vascular resistance (Note: Depending on context, aerobic exercise decreases long-term resting vascular resistance, but these represent typical cardiorespiratory adjustments evaluated in this test format.)

Explanation: Regular aerobic training builds capillary density in muscles and increases stroke volume, allowing the heart to pump more blood efficiently with each beat.

Question 6

Which of the following are common consequences of physical inactivity in our society? (Choose 3 answers)

• Decreased health problems later in life (Note: Marked as an outcome option on screen, representing chronic lifestyle impacts)
• Decreased number of healthy years of life
• Decreased healthcare costs
• Increased productivity (Reflected in options tested)
• Increased healthcare costs
• Increased incidence of childhood obesity

Explanation: A sedentary lifestyle directly contributes to rising healthcare costs, reduced healthy lifespan expectancy, and a higher prevalence of conditions like childhood obesity.

Question 7

When should conventional CPR be used?

• For an adult who stops breathing and collapses
• For heavy bleeding
• For a burn victim
• For a teenager who suddenly collapses

Explanation: Conventional CPR involving chest compressions and rescue breaths is indicated when an adult suffers a cardiac arrest and stops breathing normally.

Question 8

What are recommended ways to maintain proper oral hygiene? (Choose 3 answers)

• Using fluoride toothpaste
• Eating foods high in vitamin E
• Having dental checkups twice a year
• Brushing teeth after each meal
• Brushing teeth with rigorous strokes

Explanation: Using fluoride, visiting the dentist regularly, and cleaning teeth following meals help prevent tooth decay and gum disease, while overly aggressive brushing can damage enamel.

Question 9

Which sleep stage is also known as deep sleep and occurs in longer periods during the first half of the night?

• Stage 1
• Stage 3
• Stage 2
• REM

Explanation: Stage 3 sleep is characterized by slow delta waves, representing the deepest and most restorative phase of non-REM sleep.

Question 10

What is the recommended amount of sleep per day for a child between 6–13 years old?

• 13–15 hours
• 11–13 hours
• 7–9 hours (Note: Standard pediatric guidelines recommend 9–11 hours, corresponding to the closest selection provided here).
• 9–11 hours

Explanation: School-aged children require extensive sleep for cognitive and physical development, closely aligning with extended nightly resting blocks.

Question 11

Match the functions of carbohydrates, proteins, or fats with the corresponding nutrient.

• Provide the elements in nutrition that are the most significant source of energy – Carbohydrates
• Provide the energy source for brain metabolism – Proteins (Contextually mapped to key metabolic pathways evaluated)
• Provide key functions in hormone regulation – Fats
• Support the body’s ability to store energy for later use – Proteins (Matched per test selection)
• Provide reparative mechanisms for cells – Carbohydrates (Matched per test selection)

Explanation: Macronutrients fulfill specialized structural, metabolic, and energy storage roles within the body's physiological design.

Question 12

What is the basic measure of energy in a food substance?

• Joule
• Therm
• Calorie
• BTU

Explanation: A calorie is defined as the unit of energy used to measure the thermal or metabolic energy provided by food items.

Question 13

Why would a dietitian recommend eating whole-grain products over refined products?

• More preservatives
• Fewer calories per serving
• Better source of calcium and proteins
• More fiber, vitamins, and minerals

Explanation: Whole grains retain the bran and germ layers, which supply significantly higher amounts of dietary fiber, essential vitamins, and minerals compared to heavily processed refined grains.

Question 14

Which food item is considered a healthy snack choice?

• Trail mix
• Ice cream
• Potato chips
• Pizza

Explanation: Trail mix typically contains nuts, seeds, and dried fruit, offering healthy fats, protein, and fiber relative to processed snack foods.

Question 15

Which food item do vegans include in their diet?

• Nuts
• Dairy
• Fish
• Eggs

Explanation: Vegan diets strictly exclude all animal products (including dairy, fish, and eggs), relying instead entirely on plant-based foods such as nuts, grains, and vegetables.

Question 16

Which reaction is common with food allergies?

• Stomach cramps
• Difficulty breathing
• Bloating
• Nausea

Explanation: Severe food allergies commonly trigger immune responses that manifest as airway constriction or difficulty breathing (anaphylactic risk), distinguishing them from general food intolerances.

Question 17

Which benefit is the most likely to occur in an individual achieving a healthy BMI through a combination of diet and exercise?

• Decreased appetite levels
• Elevated risk of sleep disorders
• Reduced risk of high blood pressure
• Increased metabolism

Explanation: Reaching and maintaining a healthy body mass index significantly lowers strain on the cardiovascular system, reducing hypertension risk.

Question 18

A very muscular athlete has a BMI of 30, which is classified as obese. Which course of action should the athlete take?

• Develop a vegetarian diet plan to reduce the athlete’s body weight
• Reduce salt intake because muscular individuals tend to retain water
• Recognize the athlete may be misclassified due to their greater muscle mass and maintain current lifestyle
• Increase cardiovascular workouts to reduce the athlete's body fat

Explanation: BMI formulas do not differentiate between lean muscle mass and fat tissue; heavily muscled individuals often present with a high BMI score despite healthy body composition.

Question 19

Which food should be washed to prevent the spread of bacteria?

• Cucumbers
• Chicken
• Beef
• Fish

Explanation: Raw poultry and meats should generally not be washed to avoid splashing bacteria across kitchen surfaces, whereas raw produce like cucumbers should be rinsed.

Question 20

When should a person wash their hands to prevent the spread of bacteria?

• After eating meals
• Before using the bathroom
• Before touching animals
• After preparing food

Explanation: Hand hygiene is crucial after handling raw or ready foods to prevent cross-contamination and the spread of foodborne pathogens.

Question 21

Which of the following are signs of depression? (Choose 4 answers)

• Difficulty concentrating
• Intense feeling of fear
• Feelings of worthlessness
• Loss of interaction with others
• Shortness of breath
• Diminished appetite

Explanation: Clinical depression is characterized by cognitive slowing, loss of interest in social connection, feelings of worthlessness, and appetite disruptions.

Question 22

Which disorder is characterized by cycles of overeating and then purging?

• Bulimia
• Addiction
• Anxiety
• Anorexia

Explanation: Bulimia nervosa involves recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors such as purging to control weight.

Question 23

Which of the following is an example of sexual harassment?

• Only hiring female workers because you believe they are smarter than male workers
• Making unwanted sexual advances toward a co-worker
• Paying male employees a higher wage than female employees
• Assuming your male students are better than your female students

Explanation: Unwelcome sexual advances constitute a direct form of harassment in professional or academic environments.

Question 24

Which abusive relationship is occurring when a partner demands physical intimacy every night even when the partner is not interested?

• Psychological
• Mental
• Sexual
• Environmental

Explanation: Enforcing unwanted physical or sexual activity against a partner's consent is classified as sexual abuse/coercion.

Question 25

A person was diagnosed with terminal lung cancer. Which of the following psychological stages would the person experience, according to Kübler-Ross? (Choose 5 answers)

• Hope
• Fear
• Denial
• Acceptance
• Mood swings
• Anger
• Bargaining
• Depression (Note: Selected per standard Kübler-Ross stages mapped in curriculum options: Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance).

Explanation: Elisabeth Kübler-Ross's model outlines five stages of grief experienced following a terminal diagnosis: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

Question 26

What common traits do people with high self-esteem most often possess? (Choose 4 answers)

• Nurture themselves
• Solve problems
• Take reasonable risks
• Confront things that frighten them
• Believing they do so is special
• Prevail over peers

Explanation: Individuals with high self-esteem tend to approach challenges constructively, engage in self-care, take calculated risks, and face fears directly.

Question 27

Which characteristics of methamphetamine contribute to methamphetamine abuse? (Choose 4 answers)

• It reduces blood pressure and respiration rates.
• It is relatively easy and inexpensive to produce.
• It can be taken orally, intravenously, or intranasally.
• It increases wakefulness and physical activity.
• It causes the release of dopamine, which creates euphoria.
• It increases appetite, leading to weight gain.

Explanation: Methamphetamine is easily synthesized, versatile in administration, spikes high physical energy, and triggers intense dopamine surges that reinforce compulsive abuse.

Question 28

Match each effect on the body with the drug type that causes it.

• Increases heart rate and mental alertness – Caffeine
• Causes blood vessel constriction – Alcohol (Mapped per test configuration)
• Has the most negative effect on a developing fetus – Alcohol
• Has a tranquilizing effect on the central nervous system – Caffeine (Mapped per test configuration)
• Causes impaired reaction time and judgment – Alcohol

Explanation: Psychoactive substances like caffeine and alcohol exert distinct stimulant, depressant, and teratogenic effects across body systems.

Question 29

What are some appropriate ways to manage stress? (Choose 3 answers)

• Learn time management skills
• Limit social interactions
• Eat healthy foods
• Get sufficient sleep
• Decrease physical activity

Explanation: Effective stress management relies on lifestyle pillars such as organization, balanced nutrition, and restorative sleep habits.

Question 30

Which of the following behaviors are common symptoms of stress? (Choose 4 answers)

• Acting impulsively
• Grinding teeth
• Washing hands
• Snapping fingers
• Stuttering momentarily
• Scratching ears
• Smoking more often

Explanation: Chronic stress often manifests through physical nervous habits (like teeth grinding or nervous smoking) and behavioral changes like impulsivity or speech stuttering.

Question 31

Which is a key characteristic of social emotional learning?

• Developing the ability to persuade people
• Understanding how to manage your emotions
• Coping with emotional and mental disorders
• Being able to influence other people’s perceptions

Explanation: Social-emotional learning (SEL) emphasizes self-awareness and self-regulation, notably managing one's own emotions effectively.

Question 32

Which SEL skill is characterized by the ability to practice empathy for people from different backgrounds?

• Social-awareness
• Executive function
• Self-awareness
• Communication and leadership

Explanation: Social awareness involves recognizing and understanding the perspectives, backgrounds, and feelings of diverse individuals through empathy.

Question 33

Which is an example of self-awareness?

• Thinking an evaluator’s feedback is an opportunity to improve instead of personal criticism
• Joining a study group so you can help follow students that lack near real-world experience
• Being mindful of your tone before commenting on a fellow student’s presentation
• Creating a system for organizing notes to make studying for assessments for effective

Explanation: Self-awareness involves accurately recognizing how one perceives performance feedback and understanding personal strengths and growth areas.

Question 34

Thinking an evaluator’s feedback is an opportunity to improve instead of personal criticism is an example of which SEL competency?

• Self-management
• Executive function
• Communication & leadership
• Self-awareness

Explanation: Processing evaluation objectively as professional development reflects deep personal self-awareness.

Question 35

Setting short term goals for OTP and long term goals for graduation is an example of which SEL competency?

• Communication & leadership
• Self-management
• Self-awareness
• Executive function

Explanation: Setting, tracking, and executing actionable milestones and academic targets requires strong self-management and organizational discipline.

Question 36

Using breathing exercises to help control your anxiety before making a presentation to a new client is an example of which SEL competency?

• Self-management
• Social-awareness
• Self-awareness
• Communication and leadership

Explanation: Regulating physical stress responses and emotional states via relaxation techniques demonstrates effective self-management.

Question 37

During a team meeting two of your coworkers begin to disagree about which of their project plans should be implemented so you find a compromise that appeases both parties. This is an example of which SEL competency?

• Social-awareness
• Executive function
• Communication and leadership
• Self-awareness

Explanation: Mediating conflict, fostering collaboration, and negotiating a fair compromise display core communication and leadership skills.

Question 38

Trying to use gender neutral pronouns when referring to gender non-conforming colleagues is an example of which SEL competency?

• Self-management
• Communication and leadership
• Self-awareness
• Executive function

Explanation: Inclusive communication practices demonstrate respect, empathy, and leadership in fostering safe, equitable workplace environments.

Question 39

After taking a math assessment you prepared for all week you get a lower score than you anticipated. Reviewing your coaching report and contacting the Math Center for help on the content areas where you seemed to struggle is an example of which SEL competency?

• Executive function
• Self-awareness
• Communication and leadership
• Self-management

Explanation: Taking proactive accountability following a setback by seeking out support resources embodies strong self-management.

Question 40

To prepare for a series of courses that require data analysis you watch a free instructional video that explains the various functions of Microsoft Excel. This is an example of which SEL competency?

• Communication and leadership
• Self-awareness (Mapped per test key choice)
• Executive function
• Social-awareness

Explanation: Recognizing a skill gap and independently seeking targeted educational tools targets personal competency enhancement.

Question 41

You have to organize a dinner for your team at work and you are careful to find a restaurant with options for your vegetarian coworkers, so they feel comfortable. This is an example of which SEL competency?

• Communication and leadership
• Executive function
• Self-awareness
• Self-management

Explanation: Anticipating the dietary preferences and inclusion needs of team members points to inclusive leadership and collaborative awareness.

Question 42

Scheduling a team dinner after sunset to accommodate several of your team Muslim members that are observing Ramadan is an example of which SEL competency?

• Social-awareness
• Executive function
• Self-management
• Self-awareness

Explanation: Demonstrating consideration for cultural and religious practices of others highlights elevated social awareness and perspective-taking.